Answer:
The general level of family's income is directly proportional to the amount of cash a family is likely to hold
Explanation:
Of the three motives of money, transactional motives of money relates to holding money(whether at hand or at bank) to meet daily transaction e.g buying of fuel/gas, transport fare to work place.
If the level of income of a family increases, other things being equal, the family tends to hold more money for their daily transaction. The level of income is directly proportional to amount of cash a family holds...
For example, family A earns $100 per week and holds $30 to meet daily transaction or unforeseen circumstances. If his pay increases to$150, it is intuitive for Mr A to hold higher money, lets say $50
Answer:
$75 per case
Explanation:
Required: Selling Price per case
Sales – Variable cost – Fixed cost = Target desired profit
Sales = 800000 case x Selling Price (SP)
Variable cost = (800000 case x $40) + (800000 x SP x 25%)
Putting into equation:
Sales – Variable cost – Fixed cost = Target desired profit
(800000 x SP) – [(800000 x 40) + (800000 x SP x 25%)] - $8000000 = $ 5000000
>800000SP – (32000000 + 200000SP) – 8000000 = 5000000
>800000SP – 32000000 – 200000SP – 8000000 = 5000000
>800000SP – 200000SP = 5000000 + 8000000 + 32000000
>600000SP = 45000000
>SP = 45000000 / 600000
>SP = $ 75
Answer:
$2000=Z/(1+i)^1+Z/(1+i)^2+Z/(1+i)^3
Explanation:
let Z be the annual minimum cash flow
The internal rate of approach can be used here, in other words, the rate of return at which capital outlay of $2000 is equal present values of future cash flows
In year 1, present value of cash =X/discount factor
year 1 PV=Z/(1+i)^1
year 2 PV=Z/(1+i)^2
year 3=Z/(1+i)^3
Hence,
$2000=Z/(1+i)^1+Z/(1+i)^2+Z/(1+i)^3
Solving for Z above would give the minimum annual cash flow that must be generated for the computer to worth the purchase
Assuming i, interest rate on financing is 12%=0.12
Z can be computed thus:
$2000=Z(1/(1+0.12)^1+(1/(1+0.12)^2+(1+0.12)^3)
$2000=Z*3.09497902
Z=$2000/3.09497902
Z=$646.21
Answer: A. The other asset group should be tested for an impairment loss before goodwill is tested.
Explanation:
According to the IFRS standards, it is important and necessary to revalue your assets according to their net realizable value, i.e, assets should be reported after deducting accumulated depreciation or amortization in the case of goodwill. In the case of inventory, NRV should be calculated by estimating impairments.
The other asset groups are tested to check for impairment loss and later the goodwill is tested.
Answer:
The optimal stocking level is 45 muffins.
Explanation:
First we have to calculate the Overage cost Co = Purchase price - Salvage value = $0.2 - 0 = $0.2
Then the Underage cost Cu = Selling price - Purchase price =$0.80 - $0.2 = $0.60
Service level = Cu / (Cu + Co) = $0.60/($0.60+$0.2) = $0.75
Hence, optimal stocking level = Minimum demand + Service level *(Maximum demand - Minimum demand)
optimal stocking level = 30 + 0.75*(50-30) = 45
The optimal stocking level is 45 muffins.
Optimal stocking level = 68.75 Muffins
