Answer:
The summary of the accident, calculate the total dollar value of the property damage Stephanie caused is explained below in detail.
Explanation:
The term 100/300/100 coverage indicates that a character has coverage of $100,000 physical damage mortgage coverage per person, $300,000 total physical damage mortgage insurance per accident, and $100,000 property loss accountability per accident.
So, in case Stephanie prompted a property and accident destruction, then $1,00000 will be sustained by the insurance corporation and above this value, it will be paid by Stephanie.
Answer:
<u>Opportunity cost </u>
Explanation:
Suppose that a university decides to spend $ 1 milion to upgrade personal computers and scientific equipment for faculty rather than spend $ million to expand parking for students . This example illustrates<em><u> opportunity costs.</u></em>
<em>Opportunity cost refers to the cost shifting one opportunity to another opportunity or availing one opportunity in terms of another.</em>
Formula of Opportunity cost is :
<u>Opportunity cost</u> = Total Revenue - Economic Profit
Or
<u>Opportunity cost </u> = What one sacrifice / What one gain
In Opportunity cost we chose one thing or option over the cost of another thing or option. Opportunity cost places a important role in economic theory .
As it tell us that people can choose only one thing not the both things at the sane time.
Answer:
B sell some
Explanation:
in a scenario where it is dropping, it doesn't mean it won't come back up. So you would sell some but keep a few so if it went up you still make profit
Answer:
C. Both (i) and (ii) are true
Explanation:
Under perfect price discrimination, consumer surplus doesn't exist since the supplier is selling the good or service at the maximum price that each consumer is willing to pay. This situation maximizes supplier surplus.
Under perfect competition, both supplier and consumer surplus exist.
Since total social surplus = supplier surplus + consumer surplus, total surplus should be the same in both situations.
Answer: Option (d)
Explanation:
Under this case the write off will be as follow:
Debit Credit
Allowance for doubtful accounts 25,200
Accounts receivables 25,200
Here, in this case the Allowance for the doubtful accounts and Accounts receivables are further decreased as the outcome of the transaction made. Thus, there will be no further effect on working capital. Therefore the $30,000 that is bad debt would then be stated as the credit to allowance account. This will then decrease the working capital by $30,000.
