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jonny [76]
4 years ago
8

Compute, show all of your work: 8 × 4 − 4 ÷ 2 + 1

Mathematics
2 answers:
mariarad [96]4 years ago
7 0
PEMDAS

So you would first multiply 8x4 witch is 32 then you would divide 4*2 witch is 2 then the re-written problem would be 32- 2 + 1 then you would go left to right so 32-2 is 30 and 30 + 1 is 31. so your answer is 31. Hope I helped 
Lemur [1.5K]4 years ago
6 0
THE ANSWER IS    NO    WORK     31
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Need a little help please ​
Maksim231197 [3]

Answer:

\sqrt{1314}

Step-by-step explanation:

a²+b²=c² so: 33²+15²=x²

1089+225=x²

1314=x²

take the square root of both sides

36.249=x or

\sqrt{1314 }

=x

8 0
3 years ago
A project is graded on a scale of 1 to 5. If the random variable, X, is the project grade, what is the mean of the probability
alex41 [277]

Answer:

the mean is 3

answer choice D

Step-by-step explanation:

60/20

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the slope in the linear equation y = 2x=1?
Bumek [7]

Answer:

The slope of the line is 2

Step-by-step explanation:

y=2x+1, compare it to the slope intercept form of a line, y=mx+c, the slope will be 2

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%28a%29%20%7B%20-%20%28b%29%7D%5E%7B2%7D%20" id="TexFormula1" title="(a) { - (b)}^{2} " alt="(
Cloud [144]

Answer:

 a - b2

Step-by-step explanation:

STEP  1 :

Trying to factor as a Difference of Squares:

1.1      Factoring:  a-b2  

Theory : A difference of two perfect squares,  A2 - B2  can be factored into  (A+B) • (A-B)

Proof :  (A+B) • (A-B) =

        A2 - AB + BA - B2 =

        A2 - AB + AB - B2 =

        A2 - B2

Note :  AB = BA is the commutative property of multiplication.

Note :  - AB + AB equals zero and is therefore eliminated from the expression.

Check :  a1   is not a square !!

Ruling : Binomial can not be factored as the difference of two perfect squares

Final result :

 a - b2

<u><em>HOPE THIS HELPS!</em></u>

<u><em>PLEASE MARK BRAINLIEST! :)</em></u>

7 0
3 years ago
In a particular region, for families with a combined income of $75,000 or more, 15% of these families have no children, 35% of t
SCORPION-xisa [38]

Answer:

The probability distribution for x:"number of children per family for this income group" is:

\text{P(x=0)}=0.15\\\\\text{P(x=1)}=0.35\\\\\text{P(x=2)}=0.45\\\\\text{P(x=3)}=0.05\\\\

Step-by-step explanation:

With the information given we have the relative frequencies of each category.

We know:

\text{P(x=0)}=0.15\\\\\text{P(x=1)}=0.35\\\\\text{P(x=2)}=0.45\\\\\text{P(x=3)}=0.05\\\\

7 0
3 years ago
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