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3 years ago

I NEED HELP PLEASE ASAP! :)

Mathematics

2 answers:

Airida [17]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

2nd option: Infinite discontinuity.

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation $f(x) = \frac{-4}{x^{2} }$ is a rational equation with an asymptote at x = 0. (Pictured below)

An asymptote is an example of an infinite discontinuity because:

As x⇒ 0 from x = -∞, y ⇒-∞.

As x⇒ 0 from x = ∞, y⇒-∞.

This means that the limit does not exist.

Otrada [13]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

B. Infinite Discontinuity

Step-by-step explanation

If you graph the following equation, (maybe on desmos or calculator), you see that the graph has a vertical asymptote at x= 0 and you'll see the function graphed on both sides of x= 0. And since function approaches infinity with both sides, it is Infinite Discontinuity

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One number is twelve greater than another number. Twice the larger plus five times the smaller is 38. Find both numbers.

SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

I need points because i have a question

Step-by-step explanation:

And i need major help hope u understand also thanks

8 0

3 years ago

What must be added to x² + 6x²-x+ 5 to make it exact divisible by (x + 3)

maxonik [38]

Let f(x) = x² + 6x²-x+ 5 then ,

number to be added be P

then,

f(x) = x² + 6x²-x+ 5 +P

According to the qn,

(x+3) is exactly divisible by zero then,

R=0

comparing .. we get a= -3

now by remainder theorm

R=f(a)

0=f(-3)

0=(-3)² + 6(-3)²-(-3)+ 5 + P

0= 9 + 54 + 3 + 5 + P

-71=P

therefore, -71 should be added.

Hope you understand

4 0

2 years ago

A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a

Ronch [10]

Answer:

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows.

This means that $n = 12$

She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that $p = 0.3$

Compute the probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

2 or less sold, which is:

$P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138$

$P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{11} = 0.0712$

$P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678$

Then

$P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0138 + 0.0712 + 0.1678 = 0.2528$

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

8 0

3 years ago

The table below shows two equations:

CaHeK987 [17]

Answer:

The solutions to equation 1 are x = 3, −1.5, and equation 2 has no solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

Rearranging the two equations, you get ...

|4x -3| = 9 . . . . . has two solutions
|2x +3| = -5 . . . . has no solutions (an absolute value cannot be negative)

The above-listed answer is the only one that matches these solution counts.

_____

Testing the above values of x reveals they are, indeed, solutions to Equation 1.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Please help right away

andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

100

Step-by-step explanation:

Mixed candy question... Skittles jar... to be filled with Jelly beans.

Let's first calculate the volume of the jar. We'll assume it's a regular cylindrical prism jar, unlike the one on the photo which is narrower on top.

V = π * r² * h = π * (3.5)² * 11.5 = 140.875 π = 442.6 cubic cm

Now, we don't have the precise measurement of a jelly bean, but we know it's roughly 2-3 cubic cm. The precision isn't needed to answer this question, just to have a rough idea... it's no 300 cu cm per jelly bean.

So, let's assume a 3 cu cm per jelly bean (2 cu cm wouldn't the final answer)....

442.6 / 3 = 147.5 jelly beans, approximately.

So, can they fit 100,000? No

Can we fit 10,000 in there? No

Can we fit 100? Yes.

Can we fit 1? Certainly

The most reasonable lower-limit would then be 100.

4 0

3 years ago