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Ostrovityanka [42]
3 years ago
10

The figure shows triangle ABC with medians AF, BD, and CE. Segment AF is extended to H in such a way that segment GH is congruen

t to segment AG.
Which conclusion can be made based on the given conditions?
Select one:
a. Segment GD is congruent to segment GF.
b. Segment GD is parallel to segment HC.
c. Segment GF is parallel to segment EB.
d. Segment BH is congruent to segment HC.

Mathematics
2 answers:
ipn [44]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

(B)

Step-by-step explanation:

In ΔAHC

AG=GH (given)                                          (1)

As BD is the median of ΔABC bisecting AC at D, therefore

AD=DC                                                       (2)

Thus, From equation (1) and (2), we get

\frac{AD}{DC}=\frac{AG}{GH}=\frac{1}{1}

which implies that the segment GD is dividing the sides AH and AC  in same ratio.

Therefore by the converse of Basic proportionality theorem,segment GD is parallel to segment HC.

Hence, option B is correct.

attashe74 [19]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: Segment GD is parallel to segment HC.

Step-by-step explanation:

In ΔAHC

AG=GH (given)...........1

As BD is the median of ΔABC bisecting AC at D

∴AD=DC.........2

⇒\frac{AD}{DC}=\frac{AG}{GH}=1(from 1 and 2)

⇒segment GD is dividing the sides AH and AC  in same ratio.

Therefore by the converse of Basic proportionality theorem,segment GD is parallel to segment HC.

Converse of basic probability theorem states that if a line divides any two sides of a triangle in the same ratio, then the line must be parallel to the third side.

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The answer is d!!! Hope that helps!!

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5 0
3 years ago
How do you do these questions?
Doss [256]

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) Fₙ₋₁ > 0, so Fₙ₊₁ > Fₙ.  Each term is bigger than the one before it, so the function is increasing, meaning the series will diverge to infinity.

(b) Fₙ₊₁ / Fₙ = (Fₙ + Fₙ₋₁) / Fₙ

Divide.

Fₙ₊₁ / Fₙ = 1 + (Fₙ₋₁ / Fₙ)

Rewrite the second fraction using negative exponent.

Fₙ₊₁ / Fₙ = 1 + (Fₙ / Fₙ₋₁)⁻¹

Take the limit of both sides as n approaches infinity.

lim(n→∞) Fₙ₊₁ / Fₙ = 1 + lim(n→∞) (Fₙ / Fₙ₋₁)⁻¹

Substitute with φ.

φ = 1 + φ⁻¹

Solve.

φ² = φ + 1

φ² − φ − 1 = 0

φ = [ -(-1) ± √((-1)² − 4(1)(-1)) ] / 2(1)

φ = (1 ± √5) / 2

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φ = (1 + √5) / 2

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose r⃗ (t)=cos(πt)i+sin(πt)j+5tkr→(t)=cos(πt)i+sin(πt)j+5tk represents the position of a particle on a helix, where zz is th
gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

a) t = 4

b) v = pi j + 5 k

c) rt = 1i + (pi t) j + (20 +5t )k

Step-by-step explanation:

You have the following vector equation for the position of a particle:

r(t)=cos(\pi t)\hat{i}+sin(\pi t)\hat{j}+5t\hat{k}    (1)

(a) The height of the helix is given by the value of the third component of the position vector r, that is, the z-component.

For a height of 20 you have:

5t=20\\\\t=\frac{20}{5}=4

(b) The velocity of the particle is the derivative, in time, of the vector position:

v(t)=\frac{dr(t)}{dt}=-\pi sin(\pi t)\hat{i}+\pi cos(\pi t)\hat{j}+5\hat{k}    (2)

and for t=4 (height = 20):

v(t=4)=-\pi sin(\pi (4))\hat{i}+\pi cos(\pi (4))\hat{j}+5\hat{k}\\\\v(t=4)=-0\hat{i}+\pi\hat{j}+5\hat{k}

(c) The vector parametric equation of the tangent line is given by:

r_t(t)=r_o+vt      (3)

ro: position of the particle for t=4

r_o=cos(\pi (4))\hat{i}+sin(\pi (4))\hat{j}+20\hat{k}\\\\r_o=\hat{i}+0\hat{j}+20\hat{k}

Then you replace ro and v in the equation (3):

r_t=(1\hat{i}+20\hat{k})+(\pi \hat{j}+5\hat{k})t\\\\r_t=1\hat{i}+\pi t \hat{j}+(20+5t)\hat{k}

3 0
3 years ago
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