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Galina-37 [17]
3 years ago
12

Flapjack Corporation had 7,712 actual direct labor hours at an actual rate of $12.20 per hour. Original production had been budg

eted for 1,100 units, but only 958 units were actually produced. Labor standards were 7.5 hours per completed unit at a standard rate of $13.13 per hour. The direct labor rate variance is a.$7,172.16 unfavorable b.$7,172.16 favorable c.$7,347.18 unfavorable d.$7,347.18 favorable
Business
2 answers:
SSSSS [86.1K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The direct labor rate variance is $7,172.16 Favourable . The right answer is b.

Explanation:

According to the given data we have the following:

actual direct labor hours=7,712

actual rate=$12.20 per hour

standard rate=$13.13 per hour

In order to calculate The direct labor rate variance we would have the following formula:

Direct labour rate variance = (Standard rate-actual rate)×actual hours

Direct labour rate variance= ($13.13-12.20)×7,712

Direct labour rate variance = $7,172.16 Favourable

The direct labor rate variance is $7,172.16 Favourable

TEA [102]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

b.$7,172.16 favorable

Explanation:

(standard\:rate-actual\:rate) \times actual \: hours = DL \: rate \: variance

std rate          $  13.13

actual rate  $  12.20

actual hours       7,712

difference between actual and standart rate $0.93

As it is positive the variance is favorable as we spend less per hour than standard.

Now, we multiply by the actual hours to get the rate variance:

7,712 hours x $0.93 = $7,172.16

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Answer: 4 times

Explanation:

GDP per capita is a way of measuring the wealth Distribution in a country. It is calculated by dividing the Gross Domestic Product by the population of the country. The aim usually is to see if the Country's economy is big enough considering the amount of people it has.

Country C has a GDP per capita of,

= 10,000/500

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Country D has a GDP per capita of,

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= 4

Country C has a GDP per capita that is 4 times that of C.

4 0
3 years ago
Machida Inc. is considering a project that is expected to produce cash inflows of $3,200 per year in years 1-4, with a final cas
PolarNik [594]

Answer:

The NPV = $1578.185602 rounded off to $1578.19

As the NPV is positive, the project should be accepted.

Explanation:

The Net Present Value or NPV is a tool used to evaluate projects. It is used with various other tools to decide whether to undertake a project or not. To calculate the Net Present Value or NPV, we take the present value of the cash inflows provided by the project and deduct the initial cost of the project.  If the NPV is positive, we should proceed with the project and vice versa.

NPV = CF1 / (1+r)  +  CF2 / (1+r)^2  +  ...  + CFn / (1+r)^n  -  Initial Cost

Where,

  • CF1, CF2, ... represents cash flow in Year 1, Year 2 and so on.
  • r is the required rate of return

NPV = 3200 / (1+0.17)  +  3200 (1+0.17)^2  +  3200 (1+0.17)^3  +  

3200 (1+0.17)^4  +  5700 (1+0.17)^5  -  9800

NPV = $1578.185602 rounded off to $1578.19

4 0
3 years ago
Our web development team is creating an e-commerce site for a new product. the marketing team's goal is to develop markets world
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The answer to this question is t<span>o make the site accessible to all potential users

Hope this helps!!</span>
6 0
3 years ago
All sales are made on credit. Based on past experience, the company estimates 2.5% of ending account receivable to be uncollecti
Misha Larkins [42]

Answer:

Debit Bad Debts Expense $12,475

Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $12,475

Explanation:

Calculation for estimated bad debts expense:

Explanation

Accounts receivable * Sales uncollectible

$445,000×0.025

=11,125

Hence:

11,125 +Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 1,350

=$12,475

Therefore the estimated bad debt will be:

Debit Bad Debts Expense $12,475

Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $12,475

4 0
3 years ago
Use the following comparative figures for Apple and Google. Google 12.662 $ Key Figures Net income (in millions) Cash dividends
azamat

Answer and Explanation :

Few information is missing in the question kindly find the attachment

As per the data given in the question,

The formula and the computation is shown below

1) Book value per share = Equity applicable to share ÷ share outstanding

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Equity  common share a $134,047 $152,502

Common share outstanding b 5,126.201 694.783

Book value per common share a ÷ b $26.15 $219.50

2)Basic EPS = Net income ÷ weighted Avg common share outstanding

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Net income a $48,351 $12,662

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Basic EPS a ÷ b $9.27 $18.27

3)Dividend yield = Cash dividend per common share ÷ Market price per share

                                              Apple Google

Cash dividend per common share a 2.4 0

Market price per share b $154.12 $1046.4

Dividend yield a ÷ b 1.56% 0.00%

4) Price earning ratio = Market price per share ÷ Basic EPS

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Market price per share a $154.12 $1046.4

Basic EPS b 9.26754 18.26999

Price earning ratio a ÷ b 16.63 57.27

5) A higher PE ration indicates that investors want to pay a higher share price because of growth expectation in near by future

Therefore Google has higher PE ratio

Hence, investors have greater expectation of performance of Google in future.

4 0
3 years ago
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