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Soloha48 [4]
3 years ago
13

Khrist Corporation bases its predetermined overhead rate on the estimated machine-hours for the upcoming year. At the beginning

of the most recently completed year, the Corporation estimated the machine-hours for the upcoming year at 41,000 machine-hours. The estimated variable manufacturing overhead was $4.16 per machine-hour and the estimated total fixed manufacturing overhead was $1,167,680. The predetermined overhead rate for the recently completed year was closest to: A. $32.64 per machine-hour B. $31.64 per machine-hour C. $4.16 per machine-hour D. $28.48 per machine-hour
Business
1 answer:
zloy xaker [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: A.) $32.64 per machine hour

Explanation:

Given the following :

Estimated machine hours = 41,000 machine hours

Estimated variable manufacturing overhead = $4.16 per machine hour

Estimated total fixed manufacturing overhead = $1,167,680

Total Estimated manufacturing overhead :

(Estimated total variable manufacturing overhead + Estimated total fixed manufacturing overhead)

Estimated total variable manufacturing overhead:

$4.16 × estimated hours

= $4.16 × 41,000

= $170560

Total Estimated manufacturing overhead :

$170560 + $1,167,680 = $1338240

Hence,

Predetermined overhead rate :

Total Estimated manufacturing overhead / estimated hours

= $1338240 / 41000

=$32.64

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A company reports the following beginning inventory and purchases for the month of January. On January 26, the company sells 350
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Feldspar Inc. is considering the capital structure for a new division. Management has been given the following cost information:
34kurt

Answer:

Option 4

Explanation:

In this question ,we have to compute the WACC which is shown below:

= Weightage of debt × cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate) + (Weightage of  common stock) × (cost of common stock)

For Option 1, it would be

= (0.3 × 10%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.7 × 12.5%)

= 1.8% + 8.75%

= 10.55%

For Option 2, it would be

= (0.4 × 10.5%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.6 × 13%)

= 2.52% + 7.8%

= 10.32%

For Option 3, it would be

= (0.5 × 11%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.5 × 13.5%)

= 3.3% + 6.75%

= 10.05%

For Option 4, it would be

= (0.6 × 11.7%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.4 × 14.2%)

= 4.212% + 5.68%

= 9.89%

For Option 5, it would be

= (0.7 × 13%) × ( 1 - 40%) + (0.3 × 15.5%)

= 5.46% + 4.65%

= 10.11%

So based on this, the management should accept option 4 as it derives the best debt asset ratio

The weightage of equity would be come

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