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3 years ago

CCP is an acronym for and

Business

1 answer:

alexandr402 [8]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

CUBIC CLOSE PACKING

Explanation:

it is known to be the densest possible packings of equal spheres. Simple cubic packing consists of placing spheres centered on integer coordinates in Cartesian space

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In your own words, describe how to optimize a function given a set of constraints

Anni [7]

One method on optimizing a function is by finding the absolute extrema. It is done by having the optimal values continuous including the including the endpoints. I hope my answer has come to your help. God bless and have a nice day ahead!<span>
</span>

3 0

3 years ago

Suppose Firm A has a supply curve of Upper Q Subscript Upper A Baseline equals negative 2 plus p and Firm B has a supply curve o

Sonja [21]

Answer:

The total supply can be found by adding individual supply functions as follows:

Qa+Qb = Q

Q = -2+p+0.5p

Q= -2+1.5p where p = $44 therefore;

Q= -2+1.5(44)

Q= 64

Total supply at p = $15

Q= -2+15(1.5)

Q= 20.5

8 0

3 years ago

Grab Manufacturing Co. purchased a 10-ton draw press at a cost of $172,000 with terms of 2/15, n/45. Payment was made within the

DIA [1.3K]

Answer:

$184,260

Explanation:

Total cost of draw press is $172,000 and if it paid 15 days, there will be a discount of 2% and it is paid within the discount period

The discount is = $172,000 * 2/100 = $3,440

Total amount that would be capitalized is:

= ($172,000 - $3,440) + $4,600 + $11,100

= $168,560 + $4,600 + $11,100

= $184,260

So, the capitalized cost of the 10-ton draw press is $184,260

Note:

- The shipping costs and installation cost will be capitalized

- The cost of insurance in transit and cost incurred to remove a section of a wall will be capitalized as well as they are included in the cost above already

7 0

3 years ago

Review each of the investment opportunities provided by Earll Investments and Pima Financial Trading. In at least two to three p

irga5000 [103]

Answer:

Investment Opportunity 1 has a few risks.Though it invests in stocks, it makes consistent profits. It lacks volatility because managers carefully select stocks with long-term earning potential. Investment Opportunity 2 risks are related to changing interest rates, which can cause bonds to make less money for bondholders. Also, it may be affected by inflation, and it carries the risk of default: if a city or county government fails to make its bond payments, then the bondholder loses money. Both companies tell you the risks, and they have the same level of it. Investment Opportunity 1 has three documents to illustrate the fund’s risks and returns over the past five years.The first graph lists how a hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years. The second graph lists an overall earnings percentage for four different earnings periods. The final graphic shows how the company rates the level of risk. Investment Opportunity 2 also provided three documents to illustrate the fund’s risks and returns over the past five years. The first graph lists how a hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years. The second graph lists an overall earnings percentage for four different earnings periods. The final graphic shows how the company rates the level of risk. Both say the potential returns of each investment, but investment opportunity 1 hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years is not as steady as investment opportunity 2. Investment Opportunity 2 is the fraudulent one because its percentage of return is better than investment opportunity 1. Both are with large companies that are almost just alike but investment opportunity 2 has a better rates of return. The first one serves thousands of customers and specializes in managing stocks and mutual funds. The second firm serves thousands of customers, and it specializes in managing mutual funds that invest in bonds.

Explanation: Hope this helps this is what I used for <u>Edge 2020</u> ^-^. Also I do not take credit for this answer, but I feel like this is a very well and detailed answer.

7 0

2 years ago

Modigliani and Miller's world of no taxes. Roxy Broadcasting, Inc. is currently a low-levered firm with a debt-to-equity rat

PSYCHO15rus [73]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

For Current

Total assets = Debt + Equity

= 2 + 7 9

Now

Debt ratio = Debt ÷ Total assets = 2 ÷ 9

Equity ratio = Equity ÷ Total assets = 7 ÷ 9

Return on assets = Cost of debt × Debt ratio + Cost of equity × Equity ratio

11% = 9% × 2 ÷ 9 + Cost of equity × 7 ÷ 9

Cost of equity × 7 ÷ 9 = 11% - (9% × 2 ÷ 9)

Cost of equity = ( 11% - (9% × 2 ÷ 9) ) × 9 ÷ 7

= 12%

For New

Total assets = Debt + Equity = 7 + 2 = 9

Debt ratio = Debt ÷ Total assets = 7 ÷ 9

Equity ratio = Equity ÷ Total assets = 2 ÷9

Return on assets = Cost of debt × Debt ratio + Cost of equity × Equity ratio

11% = 9% × 7 ÷ 9 + Cost of equity × 2 ÷ 9

Cost of equity × 2 ÷ 9 = 11% - (9% × 7 ÷ 9)

Cost of equity = ( 11% - (9% × 7 ÷ 9) ) × 9 ÷ 2

= 18%

7 0

2 years ago