Cash balance plan is a retirement plan where workers are credited with a part of their pay annually and a predetermined rate of interest.
<h3><u>What is a Cash balance Plan?</u></h3>
A defined-benefit pension plan with a lifetime annuity option is referred to as a "cash balance pension plan."
<h3><u>What are some features of Cash balance plans?</u></h3>
- Based on defined-benefit needs, the financing caps, funding requirements, and investment risk are established.
- Like a defined-contribution plan, this type of plan is managed on an individual account basis.
- The advantage of these programs is that age-based contribution caps are available.
- Pretax contributions enable those 60 and older to save significantly more money each year than younger people.
You can learn more about defined pension plans work using the following link:
brainly.com/question/15241364
#SPJ4
The constitution is the correct answer
It should be noted that pursuing multiple market segments at the same time is not the best way to enter new markets. Therefore, it's false.
<h3>What is a market?</h3>
A market simply means the coming together of a buyer and seller for transactions purpose.
In this case, pursuing multiple market segments at the same time is not the best way to enter new markets. One needs to have complete knowledge before entering a market.
Learn more about market on:
brainly.com/question/25754149
Answer:
C) Sell £2,278.13 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.
Explanation:
given data
State 1 State 2 State 3
Probability 25% 50% 25%
Spot rate $ 2.50 /£ $ 2.00 /£ $ 1.60 /£
P* £ 1,800 £ 2,250 £ 2,812.50
P $4,500 $4,500 $4,500
solution
company holds portfolio in pound. so to get hedge, they will sell that of the same amount.
we get here average value of the portfolio that is
The average value of the portfolio = £ (0.25*1800 + 0.5*2250 + 0.25*2812.5)
The average value of the portfolio = 2278.13
so correct option is C) Sell £2,278.13 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.
Answer:
Normative
Positive
Normative
Positive
Explanation:
Positive Economics is objective and statements are usually based on facts and economic theory. They can be tested.
For example, the statement , In some circumstances, if taxes are lowered,
government revenues actually increase, can be tested and it has it basis in economic theory
Normative economics is based value judgements, opinions and perspectives. For example, the statement - taxes are too high - is based on opinion. To some it is too high while to others it would be too low
