Answer:
Use at least three extensions in each campaign or ad group.
Explanation:
Google recommends that in other to optimize Google ad campaigns at least three extensions should be used for each campaign or ad group: At the point of each auction, Sandy's ad will be assembled with the most appealing extensions. Elegible extensions will give Sandy's ads more opportunity to meet users’ specific needs.
Some advantages are not having to bring cash with you, andyou can keep it in one place. A couple of disadvantages are having the constant threat of account fraud of you're not careful, and you can easily overspend on a credit card.
Hope this helps ~
Answer:
USING 0% DISCOUNT RATE
PROJECT E
Year Cashflow [email protected]% PV
$ $
0 (23,000) 1 (23,000)
1 5,000 1 5,000
2 6000 1 6,000
3 7000 1 7,000
4 10,000 1 10,000
NPV 5,000
PROJECT H
Year Cashflow [email protected]% PV
$ $
0 (25,000) 1 (23,000)
1 16,000 1 16,000
2 5,000 1 5,000
3 4,000 1 4,000
NPV 2,000
Project A should be accepted
USING 9% DISCOUNT RATE
Year Cashflow [email protected]% PV
$ $
0 (23,000) 1 (23,000)
1 5,000 0.9174 4,587
2 6000 0.8462 5,077
3 7000 0.7722 5,405
4 10,000 0.7084 7,084
NPV (847)
PROJECT H
Year Cashflow [email protected]% PV
$ $
0 (25,000) 1 (23,000)
1 16,000 0.9714 15,542
2 5,000 0.8462 4,231
3 4,000 0.7722 3,089
NPV (138)
None of the projects should be accepted because they have negative NPV
Explanation:
The question requires the computation of NPV using 0% and 9%.
The cashflows of the two projects will be discounted at 0% and 9%.
The discount factors for each project can be calculated using the formula (1+r)-n. The cashflows of the projects will be multiplied by the discount factors to obtain the present values. NPV is the difference between present values of cash inflows and initial outlay.
Option 1: PV = $400,000
Option 2: Receive (FV) $432,000 in one year
PV = FV(1/(1+i)^n), where i= 8% = 0.08, n = 1 year
PV = 432,000(1/(1+0.08)^1) = $400,000
Option 3: Receive (A) $40,000 each year fro 20 years
PV= A{[1-(1+i)^-n]/i} where, n = 20 years
PV = 40,000{[1-(1+0.08)^-20]/0.08} = $392,725.90
Option 4: Receive (A) $36,000 each year from 30 years
PV = 36,000{[1-(1+0.08)^-30]/0.08} = $405,280.20
On the basis of present value computations above, option 4 is the best option for Kerry Blales. This option has the highest present value of $405,280.20
A symmetric, bell-shaped frequency distribution that is completely defined by its mean and standard deviation is the<u> normal distribution.</u>
A symmetrical distribution about the mean, such as the normal or Gaussian distribution, indicates that data points closer to the mean occur more frequently than data points further from the mean.
The normal distribution is represented graphically by a bell curve. A bell curve of probabilities is more properly known as the normal distribution. The standard deviation is one and the mean is zero in a normal distribution. Its kurtosis is 3, and its skewness is 0. Not all symmetrical distributions are normal, but all normal distributions are symmetrical. The normal distribution can be thought of as a rough approximation of many naturally occurring events. However, most price distributions in finance are not normally distributed.
<u></u>
To know more about normal distribution refer to:
brainly.com/question/14725173
#SPJ4