Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
a)
In IFRS according to IAS 19 all past service cost is recognized in the net income in the period in which amendment (change) is made by entity for defined benefit pension, it does not matter what is the status of the employees who will benefit the change. So in Year 1 $150000 will be expended completely and in subsequent years the amount is $0
Year 1 =$150000
Subsequent years= $0
b) In US GAAP the past service cost is recorded in Accumulated other comprehensive income in the year of amendment. It is amortized over the future working life of the participants.
Year 1 is year of adoption hence $0 is amortized because $150000 is included in Accumulated other comprehensive income.
Subsequent years: (150000/10=15000) $15000 will be amortized for each year for 10 years.
The opportunity cost of one extra restaurant meal in the time frame is 3 home meals.
<h3>What is opportunity cost?</h3>
Opportunity cost of the next best option forgone when one alternative is chosen over other alternatives. When the family chooses to go for the restaurant meal, they forgo the opportunity for a home meal.
Opportunity cost = 30 / 10 = 3
To learn more about opportunity cost, please check: brainly.com/question/26315727
Answer:
28 month (approx)
Explanation:
Given
Present value = $470
Monthly Payment = $20
Interest Rate = 15% annual = 15% / 12 = 1.25% monthly
=0.0125
<h3>
![Present Value = PMT [\frac{1-(1+i)^{-n}}{i}] \\470 = 20 [\frac{1-(1+0.0125)^{-n}}{0.0125}]\\470/20 = [\frac{1-(1+0.0125)^{-n}}{0.0125}]\\23.5 \times 0.0125 =1-(1+0.0125)^{-n}\\1-0.29375= (1+0.0125)^{-n}\\0.70625 = (1+0.0125)^{-n}\\0.70625 =(1.0125)^{-n}\\0.70625= \frac{1}{(1.0125)^{n}}\\(1.0125)^{n}=1.4159292\\n=28(approx)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Present%20Value%20%3D%20PMT%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B1-%281%2Bi%29%5E%7B-n%7D%7D%7Bi%7D%5D%20%5C%5C470%20%3D%2020%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B1-%281%2B0.0125%29%5E%7B-n%7D%7D%7B0.0125%7D%5D%5C%5C470%2F20%20%3D%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B1-%281%2B0.0125%29%5E%7B-n%7D%7D%7B0.0125%7D%5D%5C%5C23.5%20%5Ctimes%200.0125%20%3D1-%281%2B0.0125%29%5E%7B-n%7D%5C%5C1-0.29375%3D%20%281%2B0.0125%29%5E%7B-n%7D%5C%5C0.70625%20%3D%20%281%2B0.0125%29%5E%7B-n%7D%5C%5C0.70625%20%3D%281.0125%29%5E%7B-n%7D%5C%5C0.70625%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B%281.0125%29%5E%7Bn%7D%7D%5C%5C%281.0125%29%5E%7Bn%7D%3D1.4159292%5C%5Cn%3D28%28approx%29)
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Answer:
mining
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the industry that managed to accomplish this was the mining industry. This industry was the main push on bringing the west into the global economy, as the west mined precious metals such as gold which since there is only a fixed amount it is considered a very valuable commodity which would give those who had it a large capital. Also in order to mine the gold and other precious metals the companies needed a large number or laborers.
Answer:
Discounting the future cash flows
Explanation:
The reason is that the future returns will devalue with money received because of the Inflation. The money received after some years will result in fall in its value. So the amount received after some year of an equal amount to the amount today will not be worth the same. So discounting of future value receipts helps in decision making in todays value.
