Answer:
40 times
Step-by-step explanation:
Knowing that there are 6 outcomes and only 1 number is greater than 5.
1/6 will be the probability that u can get a a number greater than 5 once u roll the dice 1 times
so
=1/6×240
=40
Answer:
The probability of picking two consecutive purple marbles without replacement is 14.72%.
Step-by-step explanation:
Initially, there are 4+6+2+8 = 20 total marbles.
The probability of picking a purble marble is
P_{1} = \frac{number of purple marbles}{number of total marbles}
P_{1}= \frac{8}{20} = 0.4
Since there are no replacements, there are now 19 total marbles, 7 of which are purple. So, the probability of picking another purple marble is
P_{2} = \frac{7}{19} = 0.368
The probability P of picking a purble marble(P_{1}), not replacing it, and then picking another purple marble(P_{2}) is:
P = P_{1}*P_{2} = 0.4*0.368 = 0.1472 = 14.72%
Answer:
(1/3)πr2h.
Step-by-step explanation:
Volume of a cone:
V = (1/3)πr2h
Slant height of a cone:
s = √(r2 + h2)
Lateral surface area of a cone:
L = πrs = πr√(r2 + h2)
Base surface area of a cone (a circle):
B = πr2
Total surface area of a cone:
A = L + B = πrs + πr2 = πr(s + r) = πr(r + √(r2 + h2))
8(x-3)=8x-24
8x-24=8x-24
8x=8x
x=x
Since x just has to equal itself and not a specific number, there are C, infinitely many solutions to this equation.
3.2x1000=3200
And that's your answer: 3200
Hope this helps :)