I am not completely sure but looking up the definition for all of them the closest fit in the blank is C, skimming. Hope this helps you.
Answer:
option (b) 12.77 percent
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Expected return = 15.72% = 0.1572
Beta = 1.33
Risk free rate = 3.82% = 0.0382
Inflation rate = 2.95% = 0.0295
Now,
Expected return = Risk free rate + Beta × (Expected market return - Risk free rate)
or
0.1572 = 0.0382 + 1.33 × ( Expected market return - 0.0382 )
or
0.119 = 1.33 × ( Expected market return - 0.0382 )
or
Expected market return - 0.0382 = 0.08947
or
Expected market return = 0.12767
or
Expected market return = 0.12767 × 100% = 12.767% ≈ 12.77%
option (b) 12.77 percent
Answer:
It is to buy a call (A)
Explanation:
Entering a counter position to buy call option at an agreed price with the expectation of increase in stock price will better position the company to mitigate against unfavorable rises in the market share price . The gain realized from the call option will off-set the actual loss from increase in share price.
Transferring risk
Explanation:
<u>To transfer risk is in a way to test grounds of a volatile business by using a smaller company as bait and seeing how the market reacts to it before committing completely</u> for the catch once the company decides what to do there.
Transference of risk is possible for big firms and allows them to get a real view of the scenarios they can expect to see when they set up operations in a place.
Monthly income = 2000 dollars
Debt to pay = 250 + 100 = 350 dollars
Let's find the ratio of debt to income.
=> 350 / 2000 = 0.175
=> 0.175 * 100 = 17.5 percent.
Thus 17.5% of his salary goes to his debts for credit card and auto loan.