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Margaret [11]
3 years ago
8

The “Beijing Consensus” approach to economic development, a model based on China’s rapid economic growth, implies a. experimenti

ng with policies that are compatible with a state’s political structure and experience rather than with economic liberalism. b. working through the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) to pursue growth and development. c. applying liberal economic policies to East Asia to assist with development in that region. d. engaging in debt restructuring. e. not permitting private companies to function in the economy.
Business
1 answer:
maksim [4K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a. experimenting with policies that are compatible with a state’s political structure and experience rather than with economic liberalism.

Explanation:

The Beijing Consensus reflects a new approach to development based on China's model of economic growth. It is a non-liberal, state-driven view of development, in which development is seen as a process of structural transformation of society and cannot be confused or replaced by market economic policies. Thus, the central objective of the Beijing Consensus Chinese Development Policies is to create a development policy based on the experience of the state, within that country's political conformation, in order to link economic development to social and human development.

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Calculate the balance in Accumulated Depreciation at the end of the second year for all three methods
eimsori [14]

This is the full question:

At the beginning of 2016, Air Asia purchased a used airplane at a cost of $40,000,000. Air Asia expects the plane to remain useful for eight years (5,000,000 miles) and to have a residual value of $5,000,000. Air Asia expects the plane to be flow 1,200,000 the first year and 1,400,000 the second year.

1) Compute second-year (2017) depreciation expense using the following methods

a. Straight-line

b. Units-of-production

c. Double-declining-balance

2) Calculate the balance in Accumulated Depreciation at the end of the second year for all three methods:

Answer:

Explanation:

1)a) Straight-line

Depreciable base = Cost of the Asset - Residual Value

                              = $40,000,000 - $5,000,000

                              = $35,000,000

Depreciation expense per year = Depreciable base / years of useful life

                                                     = $35,000,000 / 8

                                                     = $4,375,000

The depreciation expense for the second year is = $4,375,000

                                                                                       

b) Units-of-production

Units of Production Rate = Depreciable Base / Units Over Useful Life

                                        = $35,000,000 / 5,000,000 miles

                                        = 7

Depreciation Expense = Units of Production Rate x Actual Units Produced

                                      = 7 x 1,400,000 miles in the second year

                                      = $9,800,000

c. Double-declining-balance

Double-declining balance = 2 x (Asset Cost - Residual Value ) / Useful Life of the Asset

                                           = 2 x ($40,000,000 - $5,000,000) / 8

                                           = $8,750,000

2) a) Straight-line Accumulated depreciation

We simply multiply the previous answer by two = $4,375,000 x 2

                                                                              = $8,750,000

2) b) Units-of-production Accumulated depreciation

First we find the depreciation expense for the first year using the same formula as above

= 7 x 1,200,000

= $8,400,000

Finally we simply add up depreciation expense for the two years

= $8,400,000 + $9,800,000

= $18,200,000

2) c) Double-declining-balance Accumulated depreciation

We simply multiply the first result by two = $8,750,000 x 2

                                                                    = $17,500,000

                                       

                           

5 0
4 years ago
LanWan Software earned net sales revenue of $62,000,000 in 2016. Cost of goods sold was $41,540,000​, and net income reached $9,
blagie [28]

Answer:

33%

Explanation:

Given that,

Net sales revenue = $62,000,000

Cost of goods sold = $41,540,000

Net income reached the​ company's highest ever = $9,000,000

Gross profit:

= Net sales revenue - Cost of goods sold

= $62,000,000 - $41,540,000

= $20,460,000

Therefore, the gross profit percentage is calculated by dividing the gross profit by the net sales.

Gross profit percentage for 2016:

= (Gross profit ÷ Net sales) × 100

= ($20,460,000 ÷ $62,000,000) × 100

= 0.33 × 100

= 33%

4 0
4 years ago
Public-opinion polls in a small city have revealed that citizens want more resources spent on public safety, an annual fireworks
Gre4nikov [31]

Answer:

The correct answer is Community swimming pools.

Explanation:

Taking into account the duties of public entities that are not susceptible of being assigned to individuals, within the three requests only that of community pools can be privatized due to the low relationship they have with the responsibilities of a public entity of this type. The other two requests are of a different nature, and, despite having involvement with other forces or interests, the local government must ensure proper management of public resources that is evident in the citizens.

3 0
3 years ago
Define liquidity risk and explain how it relates to bonds and bond yields.
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

Liquidity risk is the inability to quickly sell a bond for its full value. This risk exists primarily in thinly traded issues. Default risk is the likelihood the issuer will default on its bond obligations and is the basis for bond ratings.

Liquidity is a prime determiner of yield spreads, explaining up to half of the cross-sectional variation in spread levels and up to two times the cross-sectional variation in spread changes that is explained by the effects of credit rating alone.

Liquidity risk Liquidity refers to the investor's ability to sell a bond quickly and at an efficient price, as reflected in the bid-ask spread. High-yield bonds can sometimes be less liquid than investment-grade bonds, depending on the issuer and the market conditions at any given time.

(If some parts overlap/relate to the exactly to other parts, I'm sorry. But there ya go !)

5 0
3 years ago
Thomas Kratzer is the purchasing manager for the headquarters of a large insurance company chain with a central inventory operat
klemol [59]

Answer:

A) EOQ = 208.56 units

B) Average inventory = 104.28 units

C) Optimum number of order = 28.76 times

Explanation:

Economic order quantity is the order quantity that minimizes the balance of ordering and carrying cost.

Economic order quantity = √2× 29× 6,000/8=208.56 units

Average inventory = Minimum stock level +  Order quantity/2

minimum stock level is not given , hence

Average inventory = 208.56/2 = 104.28 units

Optimum number of order

Optimum number of order = Demand / order quantity

= 6000/208.56= 28.76 times.

EOQ = 208.56 units

B) Average inventory = 104.28 units

C) Optimum number of order = 28.76 times

3 0
4 years ago
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