Answer:
14 12 13 13 14 15 14 16 ,14 134444
Look at the picture.
the length of horizontal segment: |10 - 4| = |6| = 6
the length of vertical segment: |8 - 3| = |5| = 5
Use the Pythagorean thorem:
Remark
It is a direct variation.
y = k x
You can solve for k .
y = 208
x = 4
k= ??
y = k * x
208 = k * 4 Divide by 4
208 / 4 = k
k = 52
So the equation becomes
y = 52 x
I will give an instance to answer this. Suppose that we have 1,000 days. And it was given above that machine A has 10 % chances to malfunctioned and B has a 7%. So machine A has 100 days that malfunctioned while machine B has 70 days. And 7 days that both machines malfunctioned (10%x7%). Next is to add 100 days from machine A and 70 days from machine B and subtract with the 7 days where both of them malfunctioned. So the result is 163 days out of 1000 that we expect an incidence of failure. So the chance of machine B to malfunctioned is 70 days. 70/163 is 42.93%
Answer:
D
Step-by-step explanation:
