Answer:
a. $69.46
b. 58.15
Explanation:
a. Price = Benchmark PS ratio × Sales per share
<u>Sales per Share</u>
= Sales / Shares outstanding
= 2,100,000/130,000
= $16.15
Price = 4.3 * 16.15
Price = $69.46
b. PS Ratio is 3.6
Price = Benchmark PS ratio × Sales per share
Price = 3.6 * 16.15
Price = $58.15
Answer:
A good use of free cash flow is to Invest in nonoperating assets
Explanation:
Free cash flow (FCF) is a measure of how much cash a business generates after accounting for capital expenditures such as buildings or equipment. This cash can be used for expansion, dividends, reducing debt, or other purposes.
If the underlying objective is to maximize shareholder wealth by increasing the firm’s value. Any use of FCF that negatively affects the firm’s value is not considered a good use of the FCF.
A good use of FCF would be to invest in nonoperating assets such as marketable securities, investments in other companies, etc.)
Answer:
2040.
Explanation:
To reach the total manufacturing cost we need to calculate machining and assembling overhead rate first, in order to calculate the rate we need to divide manufacturing overhead cost on number of hours
Machining OH rate = 280000 / 50000 = 5.60
Assembling OH rate = 360000/40000 = 9.00
manufacturing cost:
machine Assembly Total
Material 425 175 600
labor 275 300 575
Overhead 865
(50*5.60) 280
(65*9) 585
Total cost 2040
Answer: C. Clip Art
Explanation: Apex Verified
Answer:
EPS = $4.50
diluted EPS = $2.46
Explanation:
no option is correct since EPS = $4.50, and the rest of the options are all higher amounts. Diluted EPS are always smaller than EPS.
common stock outstanding = 1,000 stocks
bonds shares (diluted) = 1,000 stocks
net income = $4,500
bond interest = $10,000 x 6% x (1 - 30%) = $420
diluted earnings per share = ($4,500 + $420) / (1,000 shares + 1,000 shares) = $4,920 / 2,000 shares = $2.46
