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Alekssandra [29.7K]

3 years ago

5

What is true about solving inequalities

1 answer:

anyanavicka [17]3 years ago

3 0

When you substitute a number for the variable in an open sentence, the resulting statement is either true or false. If the statement is true, the number is a solution to the equation or inequality. Since 29 is not equal to 24, 3 is not a solution to the equation.

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Staples sells pencils in packs of 12 pencils for 3.50. Office max sells pencils in packs of 15pencils for 6.50.what is the diffe

love history [14]

We are given

Staples sells pencils in packs of 12 pencils for 3.50

so, staples cost is

$=\frac{3.50}{12}$ per pencil

$=0.29167$ per pencil

Office max sells pencils in packs of 15 pencils for 6.50

so, office max cost is

$=\frac{6.50}{15}$ per pencil

$=0.4333$ per pencil

now, we can find their differences

$=0.4333-0.29167$ per pencil

$=0.14$ per pencil............Answer

5 0

3 years ago

What’s the answer for 6?

horrorfan [7]

I'm not 100 percent sure but I think is e

6 0

3 years ago

Samuel bought a cement mixer for $54,205. The value of the cement mixer depreciated at a constant rate per year. The table shows

Paul [167]

The value of cement mixer after t year is $f(t) = 54,205(0. 87)^{t}$

Given to us

The value of cement mixer when bought, $P$ = $ 54,205

the value of cement mixer after 1 year, $P_1$ = $ 47,158. 35

the value of cement mixer after 2 year, $P_2$ = $ 41,027. 76

To find out depreciation we can use the formula for depreciation,

$P_n= P(1-r)^n\\where,\\P_n= Value\ of\ asset\ after\ n\ year\\P= Value\ of\ asset\ when\ bought\\r= rate\ of\ depreciation\\n= number\ of\ years$

By putting the value, in the formula we get,

$P_1= P(1-r)^n\\\\47,158.35= 54,205\times (1-r)^1\\\\\dfrac{47,158.35}{54,205} = (1-r)\\\\0.87=1-r\\\\r=0.13$

Therefore, putting the value of $r$ and $P$ in depreciation formula for $t$ years we get,

$P_n= P(1-r)^n$

$f(t) = 54,205(0. 87)^{t}$

Hence, the value of cement mixer after t year is $f(t) = 54,205(0. 87)^{t}$ .

To know more visit:

brainly.com/question/3023490

8 0

2 years ago

Please tell me if # 6 and 7 is correct

lesantik [10]

#6 is incorrect
it's 6 7/8
#7 is correct

6 0

3 years ago

On a map, 1 inch equals 5.2 miles. Two house are 3.5 inches apart on the map. What is the actual distance between the house?

MissTica

Answer:

18.2 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

simple multiplication:

We know that 1 inch of distance on the map is equal to 5.2 miles.

Using this knowledge we can multiply the amount of inches by the miles per inch.

5.2*3.5=18.2 miles apart

Hope this helps!!

4 0

3 years ago