1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Fiesta28 [93]
3 years ago
5

The Butler-Perkins Company (BPC) must decide between two mutually exclusive projects. Each costs $7,000 and has an expected life

of 3 years. Annual project cash flows begin 1 year after the initial investment and are subject to the following probability distributions:
Project A Project B
Probability Cash Flows Probability Cash Flows
0.2 $6,250 0.2 $0
0.6 $7,000 0.6 $7,000
0.2 $7,750 0.2 $17,000
BPC has decided to evaluate the riskier project at 13% and the less-risky project at 10%.
a. What is each project's expected annual cash flow? Round your answers to two decimal places.
b. Based on the risk-adjusted NPVs, which project should BPC choose?
Business
1 answer:
aleksklad [387]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a. The project A's expected annual cash flow is $7,000

The project B's expected annual cash flow is $7,600

b. BPC should choose the project b

Explanation:

a. In order to calcualte the project A's expected annual cash flow we would have to make the following calculation:

project A's expected annual cash flow =0.2*$6,250 +0.6 *$7,000+0.2 *$7,750=$7,000

In order to calcualte the project B's expected annual cash flow we would have to make the following calculation:

project B's expected annual cash flow =0.2*$0 +0.6 *$7,000+0.2 *$17,000 =$7,600

b. Becuase Project B's CV is higher , hence Project B has the higher NPV, thus, the firm should accept Project B.

You might be interested in
The first thing that the customer needs to do to take a loan is what
PtichkaEL [24]
Check their credit will be your answer hope this helped plz mark brainlist
7 0
3 years ago
You just purchased a brand new BMW 7-series for $97,600 using a dealer loan at an interest rate of 6.75 percent and zero down pa
Ivenika [448]

To calculate the loan balance after making the third payment, we use the future value concept, which shows the balance as $61,153.54.

<h3>What is the future value concept?</h3>

The future value concept describes the idea that the present value of cash flows today are not worth the same as their future value because of the time value of money.

The future value can be computed using the following future value formula:

FV = PV(1+r)^{n}

FV = future value

PV = present value

r = annual interest rate

{n} = number of periods interest held

Alternatively, we can use an online finance calculator to determine the future value of the loan after the third payment as follows:

<h3>Data and Calculations:</h3>

N (# of periods) = 7 years

I/Y (Interest per year) = $6.75

PV (Present Value) = $97,600

FV (Future Value) = $0

<u>Results:</u>

Annual Payment = $16,817.29

Sum of all periodic payments = $117,721.04 ($16,817.29 x 7)

Total Interest = $20,121.04 ($117,721.04 - $97,600)

Balance after the third payment = $61,153.54

<h3>Schedule of Payment:</h3>

Period     PV                  PMT            Interest               FV

1       $97,600.00      $16,817.29      $5,452.83      $86,235.54

2      $86,235.54      $16,817.29      $4,685.73        $74,103.98

3      $74,103.98       $16,817.29      $3,866.85        $61,153.54

4       $61,153.54      $16,817.29      $2,992.70       $47,328.95

5     $47,328.95      $16,817.29      $2,059.54         $32,571.19

6      $32,571.19      $16,817.29        $1,063.39        $16,817.29

7      $16,817.29      $16,817.29        $0.00                $0.00

Thus, the loan balance after making the third payment is $61,153.54.

Learn more about determining the loan balance at brainly.com/question/22846480

8 0
3 years ago
Amfac Company manufactures a single product. The company keeps careful records of manufacturing activities from which the follow
Lubov Fominskaja [6]

1. Manufacturing overhead cost: let us prepare a schedule of cost of goods manufactured to determine the manufacturing overhead cost added to production.

Manufacturing overhead cost for march:

Schedule of cost goods manufactured

Beginning balance in works in process

35000

Plus current manufacturing costs:

Direct material (5600 units x $8)44,800

Direct labor ( 5600 * $10)56,000

Manufacturing overhead (288200-44800-56000)

1,87,400

Total (268200+55000-35000)

2,88,200

Less ending balance in works in process

-55,000

Cost of goods manufactured

2,68,200

Manufacturing overhead cost for June:

Schedule of cost goods manufactured

Beginning balance in works in process

27000

Plus current manufacturing costs:

Direct material (10200 units * $8)

81,600

Direct labor ( 10200 * $10)

1,02,000

Manufacturing overhead (394000-81600-102000)

2,10,400

Total (403000+18000-27000)

3,94,000

Less ending balance in works in process

-18,000

Cost of goods manufactured

4,03,000

2. High-low method: The cost equation such as variable cost and the fixed cost can be calculated using the high-low method as follows;

Variable cost per unit = (Highest cost - lowest cost) /( highest level of activity - lowest level of activity)

Variable cost per unit =( 210400 - 187400) / (10200 - 5600 )= 23000 / 4600

Variable cost per unit = $5

Total variable cost at lowest activity = 5 * 5600

Total variable cost= 28000

Fixed cost = Total cost - variable cost = 187400 - 28000 = $159400

Formula

Total overhead cost = 159400 + ( 5 * number of units produced)

To learn more more about  Company manufactures visit:brainly.com/question/15494518

#SPJ4

5 0
2 years ago
Juarez builders incurred $285,000 of labor costs for construction jobs completed during the month of august, of which $212,000 w
Feliz [49]
The answer is

debit work in process inventory $212,000; credit factory wages payable $212,000.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Xylon Corp. has contracts to complete weekly supplements required by forty-six customers. For the year 2015, manufacturing overh
Alina [70]

Answer:

the cost per overhead rate and the inspection cost allocation is $0.08 per page and $190 respectively

Explanation:

The computation is shown below;

The cost per overhead rate is

= $840,000 ÷ 10,000,000

= $0.08 per page

The inspection cost allocated to Money Managers is

= $80,000 ÷ 16,000 × $38

= $190

hence, the cost per overhead rate and the inspection cost allocation is $0.08 per page and $190 respectively

The same would be considered and relevant too

7 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • When dealing with babies Bottle-propping should be avoided because
    6·2 answers
  • The net result of all money that flows into and out of a nation due to international payments is measured by the nation s answer
    9·1 answer
  • Difference between compulsory and non-compulsory insurance
    5·1 answer
  • At an output level of 84,000 units, you calculate that the degree of operating leverage is 1.80. Suppose fixed costs are $180,00
    5·1 answer
  • Which of the following statements is TRUE? Economists normally assume that the goal of the firm is to: I. sell as much of their
    7·2 answers
  • Every time the HR representative comes to work dressed in a suit, layoff notices seem to be distributed. You and your colleagues
    13·1 answer
  • The change in the market value of an asset over some time period is called the
    10·1 answer
  • The right to privacy of employees Group of answer choices takes priority over other moral considerations. may conflict with an o
    14·1 answer
  • gluon inc. is considering the purchase of a new high pressure glueball. it can purchase the glueball for $90,000 and sell its ol
    12·1 answer
  • What is the length of the product mix?
    15·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!