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joja [24]
3 years ago
6

One cost of attending a technical school program versus a four- year college program is A. a lower lifetime income potential B.

Lower cost to attend than a four-year school C. Entering the workforce sooner D. Some trades are in more demand than certain degrees
Business
1 answer:
Drupady [299]3 years ago
7 0

A. A lower lifetime income potential

The other answers are all benefits of picking a trade program over a 4 year degree. This one is a "cost" because of the potential opportunity cost of choosing a different degree that could make more money over time.

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Which of the following is not an example of how media coverage of the Space Race affected the economy?
mrs_skeptik [129]

Correct option: The media only covered positive elements of the Space Race and never mentioned any setbacks.

The above given option does not talk about any aspect of media coverage of the space race and its effects on the economy. Covering only positive aspect without explaining its economic implications does not have any positive or negative effect on any economic activity, externalities or economic well being of any country. On the other hand, option B , C and D talks about economic implications.


7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pat invested a total of $3,000. Part of the money was invested in a money market account that paid 10 percent simple annual inte
adell [148]

Answer:

$800 in account that pays 10% interest

$2,200 in account that pays 8% interest

Explanation:

Account A = Money market account that paid 10% simple annual interest

Account B = Money market account that paid 8% simple annual interest

W1 = Proportion of money invested in Account A

W2 = Proportion of money invested in Account B

W1 + W2 = 1

therefore, W1 = 1 - W2

Principle amount = $3,000

3000 x W1 = Amount of money invested in Account A

3000 x W2 = Amount of money invested in Account B

Total interest earned = $256

R1 = 10% simple interest on Account A

R2 = 8% simple interest on Account B)

Total Interest = (Principle x W1 x R1) + (Principle x W2 x R2)

256 = (3000 x W1 x 10%) + (3000 x W2 x 8%)

256 = 300 W1 + 240 W2

256 = 300 W1 + 240 ( 1 - W1)

256 = 300 W1 + 240 - 240 W1

16 = 60 W1

W1 = 16 / 60

W2 = 1 - W1 = 1 - (16/60) = 11/15

Amount of money invested in Account A = 3000 x W1 = 3000 x (16/60) = $800

Amount of money invested in Account B = 3000 x W2 = 3000 x (11/15) =$2,200

6 0
3 years ago
When the Fed sells government securities in the open​ market, the money supply​ ________ because​ ________. A. ​increases; banks
Brums [2.3K]

Answer: Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:

Open market operations: In Open market operations, there is a buying and selling of government securities by the central bank of a nation. It is a monetary policy instrument that is used to control money supply in an economy.

If Fed sells the government securities in the open market then as a result there is a transfer of from public to Fed. So, there is a fall in the money supply because banks lose liquidity. Now, banks are able to make fewer loans to the borrowers and checking deposits also decreases.

5 0
3 years ago
Stinehelfer Beet Processors, Inc., processes sugar beets in batches. A batch of sugar beets costs $59 to buy from farmers and $2
snow_lady [41]

Answer:

Financial disadvantage from further processing = $(9)

Explanation:

<em>A company should process further a product if the additional revenue from the split-off point is greater than than the further processing cost.  </em>

<em>Also note that all cost incurred up to the split-off point (the cost of crushing) are irrelevant to the decision to process further .  </em>

                                                                                                  $

Sales revenue after crushing                                                55                          

Sales revenue at the split-off point                                        <u>81</u>

Additional sales revenue                                                       26

Further processing cost                                                        <u> (35)</u>

Net income after further processing                                     <u> (9) </u>

Financial disadvantage from further processing = $(9)

<em>Kindly note that the allocated joint costs( cost of sugar and crushing) are irrelevant. This implies that whether or not the intermediate products are processed further the joint costs are irrelevant to the decision to process the beet juice further</em>.

4 0
3 years ago
Harwood Company uses a job-order costing system. Overhead costs are applied to jobs on the basis of machine-hours. At the beginn
NNADVOKAT [17]

Under- or Over-Applied Manufacturing Overhead:

Under- or Over-Applied Manufacturing Overhead refers to the balance in the manufacturing overhead control account after the actual overhead costs that were incurred and the applied overhead for the period has been recorded

1 .The appleid overhead is the predetermined rate of $2.40 per machine hour multiplied by the actual number of machine hours (75,000), so it is $180,000.

The applied overhead is debited to work-in-process inventory and credited to the manufacturing overhead account.

2. The underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year is the difference between the actual and applied overhead. We can show it in the T-account like this:

3. The company estimated its total overhead cost to be $192,000 and its total machine hours to be 80,000. The actual overhead cost was $184,000 and the actual machine hours were 75,000. We can see that the main reason why the manufacturing overhead was underapplied was the fact that it worked fewer machine hours than anticipated with a proportional decrease in the manufacturing overhead costs incurred. This is normal because an element of manufacturing overhead is fixed.

To know more about overhead applied manufacturing overhead:

brainly.com/question/14703509

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
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