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3 years ago

72 divide 4176 long division

Mathematics

1 answer:

Contact [7]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

it would be 58

Step-by-step explanation:

if you do 72 x 417 it would be 5 at the top and 360 would be at the bottom so it would be 417-360 which is 57 and the six at the top u would drop so now it is 576 so if you do 72 x 8 it would be 576 so u would put the 8 with the 5 and subtract the 576 - 576 and that is 0 BOOM

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The ratio of the drag coefficients $\dfrac{F_m}{F_p}$ is approximately 0.0002

Step-by-step explanation:

The given Reynolds number of the model = The Reynolds number of the prototype

The drag coefficient of the model, $c_{m}$ = The drag coefficient of the prototype, $c_{p}$

The medium of the test for the model, $\rho_m$ = The medium of the test for the prototype, $\rho_p$

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We have;

$L_p = \dfrac{\rho _p}{\rho _m} \times \left(\dfrac{V_p}{V_m} \right)^2 \times \left(\dfrac{c_p}{c_m} \right)^2 \times L_m$

Therefore;

$\dfrac{L_p}{L_m} = \dfrac{\rho _p}{\rho _m} \times \left(\dfrac{V_p}{V_m} \right)^2 \times \left(\dfrac{c_p}{c_m} \right)^2$

$\dfrac{L_p}{L_m} =\dfrac{17}{1}$

$\therefore \dfrac{L_p}{L_m} = \dfrac{17}{1} =\dfrac{\rho _p}{\rho _p} \times \left(\dfrac{V_p}{V_m} \right)^2 \times \left(\dfrac{c_p}{c_p} \right)^2 = \left(\dfrac{V_p}{V_m} \right)^2$

$\dfrac{17}{1} = \left(\dfrac{V_p}{V_m} \right)^2$

$\dfrac{F_p}{F_m} = \dfrac{c_p \times A_p \times \dfrac{\rho_p \cdot V_p^2}{2}}{c_m \times A_m \times \dfrac{\rho_m \cdot V_m^2}{2}} = \dfrac{A_p}{A_m} \times \dfrac{V_p^2}{V_m^2}$

$\dfrac{A_m}{A_p} = \left( \dfrac{1}{17} \right)^2$

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$\dfrac{F_m}{F_p} = \left( \left\dfrac{1}{17} \right)^3$ = (1/17)^3 ≈ 0.0002

The ratio of the drag coefficients $\dfrac{F_m}{F_p}$ ≈ 0.0002.

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3 years ago

72 divide 4176 long division​

72 divide 4176 long division