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natta225 [31]
3 years ago
10

Alberto uses the steps below to solve the equation One-half x minus 3 equals 7. Step 1: One-half x minus 3 plus 3 equals 7 plus

3 Step 2: One-half x plus 0 equals 10 Step 3: One-half x equals 0 Step 4: 2 (one-half) x equals 2 (10) Step 5: 1 x equals 20 Step 6: x equals 20 Which justifies Step 6 of his work?
Mathematics
1 answer:
natka813 [3]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Identity property of multiplication

Step-by-step explanation:

From step 5:

1x = 20

Here, to solve for x so that the variable x stands alone, Alberto uses the identity property of multiplication, which justifies what he has in step 6.

Step 6:

x = 20

According to the identity property of multiplication, any value you multiply by 1 gives you that same value.

Therefore, 1x = 1 × x = x.

The variable x multiplied by 1 will give you x.

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What is the value of g(0)<br> -2<br> -1<br> 3<br> 6
Tanzania [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

An x value of 0 can only be plugged into the equation that has a domain that includes 0. The first function's domain is between -2 and -4, so 0 is not included in that domain. In the third function, the domain is between 1 and 3, so 0 is not included in that domain, either. The middle function's domain does include 0 (0 falls between -2 and 1) so we can only evaluate this function at an x value of 0.

g(0) = -0 - 1 so

g(0) = -1

6 0
3 years ago
HELP IM GIVING 20 POINTS LIKE PLZZ I NEED HELP​
maria [59]

Answer:

price = 4.1

cost = 12.3

Step-by-step explanation:

price = 0.8+1.2+1.5+0.6 = p4.1

cost = 2.40+3.60+4.50+1.80 = $12.3

3 0
2 years ago
A pair of snow boots at an equipment store in Big Bear that originally cost $60 is on sale for 40% off. Then, you have a coupon
alexandr1967 [171]

Answer:

$30 i think

Step-by-step explanation:

because %40+%10=%50

and %50 is half of %100 so 60-(60×(50%)=30

sorry is its wrong

5 0
3 years ago
The marked price of an article is Rs 2,800 which is 40 % above the cost price. If it
mixer [17]

Answer:

mp=2800

mp=cp+40%ofcp=cp+40/100×cp=1.4cp

2800=1.4çp

cp=2800/1.4=2000

discount=20%

profit%=?

Step-by-step explanation:

sp=mp-discount%of mp=2800-20/100×2800=2240

profit=sp-cp=2240-2000=240

profit%=profit/cp×100%=240/2000×100%=12%

7 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP ME IMMEDIATELY
valkas [14]

Answer:

Angle 1 = Angle 2 = 5y -23            (Vertically opposite)

We can see that we have a triangle in the figure

Since the sum of all angles of a triangle is 180,

<em>(2x + 13) + (47) + (5y -23) = 180</em>

<em>2x + 5y + 37 = 180</em>

<em>2x + 5y = 143</em>

5y = 143 -2x -----------------(1)

Assuming l and m to be parallel

<em>angle 1  = 3x (corresponding angles)</em>

<em>5y - 23 = 3x </em>

<em>From equation (1)</em>

<em>143 -2x - 23 = 3x </em>

<em>120 = 5x </em>

x = 24 ---------------------- (2)

Using (2) in (1)

<em>5y = 143 - 2(24)</em>

<em>5y = 143 - 48</em>

<em>5y = 95</em>

y = 19

Therefore,

x = 24

y = 19

Kindly mark Brainliest

8 0
3 years ago
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