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DanielleElmas [232]
3 years ago
8

Carter Fenton is planning to borrow $1,600 from Christine

Mathematics
1 answer:
Igoryamba3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Maturity value = $1,635

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the Future Value (FV) amount using simple interest formula;

FV= [Principal * rate * Time] + Principal

Principal = 1600

rate= 7.5% or 0.075

Time = 105 days/ 360 = 0.291667

Therefore, FV = (1600 * 0.075 * 0.291667] +1600

FV= 35+1600

FV= $1,635

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Express in its lowest terms the ratio of 25:75
shutvik [7]

Answer: 1:3

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Divide both sides by 25:</u>

25/25:75/25

1:3

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3 years ago
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3x+2y=-15 2x=-18 elimination
Sergeeva-Olga [200]

Answer: (-9,6)


Step-by-step explanation:

3x+2y=-15

2x=-18

First solve for x in second equation

2x=-18

2x/2=-18/2

X= -9

Now substitute your x into first equation to find y

3(-9)+2y= -15

-27+2y=-15

2y= -15+27

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5 0
3 years ago
Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu.
sdas [7]

The graph described is the graph of a quadratic function.

The x-intercept of the function is at; (8, 0).

<h3>What type of function is described by the graph?</h3>

It follows from the description box of the graph that it begins in the third quadrant, and rises through a series of points in the first quadrant before it exits the first quadrant.

Hence, it follows that the graph is a quadratic function and its x-intercept is at point; (8,0).

Read more on intercept;

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3 0
2 years ago
Which of the following correlation coefficients would generate the most benefit in terms of risk reduction for a 2-asset portfol
mart [117]

Answer:

Asset B generate most benefit.

Step-by-step explanation:

Correlation shows the strength of relation between two variables.

Greater the correlation coefficient greater the strength between two variables.

Since here It is given that Correlation Coefficient between risk reduction and Asset B is higher (i.e. 60%) than the Correlation Coefficient between risk reduction and Asset A (i.e. 40%).

Thus, Asset B generate most benefit.

8 0
3 years ago
A 15 pound bag of candy cost $9.99. How much does 1 pound of candy cost? How do you know? Make sure to show all work and answer
Law Incorporation [45]

All you would do is divide 9.99/15 to get how much one pound costs.

The answer would be around 66 or 67 cents.

9.99/15=.666

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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