3 years ago

WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST

Mathematics

1 answer:

Nadusha1986 [10]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Therefore the y-intercept of f(x) is equal to the y-intercept of g(x) ....

Step-by-step explanation:

For the given function f(x) = −3(1.02)^x

The y-intercept can be determined when x = 0

f(0)= -3(1.02)^0

f(0)= -3(1)

f(x)= -3

f(x) has a y-intercept at (0,-3)

g(x) has a y intercept at (0, -3)

Therefore the y-intercept of f(x) is equal to the y-intercept of g(x) ....

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