1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
wolverine [178]
2 years ago
6

Spain gave the united states full control of the philippines when

History
1 answer:
d1i1m1o1n [39]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

When the United States paid $20 million, as set out in the Treaty of Paris, is the right answer.

Explanation:

A treaty between the United States and Spain that put an end to the Spanish-American War came to be known as the Treaty of Paris. This treaty was signed on 10th December 1898. Following the terms and conditions of the treaty, Spain abandons its sovereignty over and title to Cuba and  Puerto Rico, Guam, and the Philippines to the U.S. At the same time, the United States gave a sum of $20 million to Spain as compensation.

You might be interested in
Tensions between France and Europe led to which colonial American
Soloha48 [4]

Answer:

C

Explanation:

The French and Indian War

4 0
2 years ago
Why do you think the U.S. maintained a position of neutrality in World War II for so long? What was the role of the U.S. in this
Tamiku [17]
The US believed in isolation, if another country attacked the US that is the only way that we would get involved, therefore we tried to stay out of the mass killings and havoc that the Germans and Japanese were creating until we felt that it involved the US. The US did not want to pick a side and have to stay loyal to that side and go to war when that country did because of the alliance. The US finally joined in to help the allied powers to supply them with weapons/military troops. They did not enter the war until December 1941.
7 0
3 years ago
What religious script are children encouraged to study and read during Hanukkah?
nordsb [41]
They are encouraged to read the Talmud
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The Legislative branch of government gets to appoint judges, while the Executive branch gets to remove them.
Dominik [7]
True

Executive would exit them out
3 0
3 years ago
In England, the knights and burgesses met together, forming the basis for the House of Commons. How would other groups of people
pashok25 [27]

I believe the answer is: Originally meeting as a large group, as the House of Commons was instated, the clergy and nobles became the House of Lords

During the meeting, the members of the house of commons would be the one that analyze a certain legislation and determine whether the legislation is eligible for passing or not. The house of lords than would gather together to review the decision made by members of the house of commons.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • Based on what you have read, compare and contrast the reforms of Nikita Khrushchev and Mikhail Gorbachev. Write two to three par
    10·2 answers
  • Which of these rivers is one of two major waterways that feed into the Aral Sea?
    13·2 answers
  • What best describes the effects of the red scare in texas during the 1920s?
    12·2 answers
  • An effect of frequent fighting in the Middle East was many kidnappings. many deaths. many countries becoming Communist. many sto
    13·2 answers
  • Should the united state ally itself with great britain or france
    11·2 answers
  • What is the <br>meaning of zimpon​
    5·2 answers
  • Help me please!!!!!!
    6·1 answer
  • Which are acceptable reasons for studying history?
    8·1 answer
  • What’s the answer????
    12·2 answers
  • When john adams gives henry clay a position in exchange for votes, this becomes known as the:______.
    12·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!