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Zepler [3.9K]
3 years ago
8

1. When the percent of uncollectible accounts on current accounts ls 1% and the unadjusted balance in allowance for doubtful acc

ounts is a credit of
$3,250, the entry for bad debt expense is a debit to bad debt expense for $​
Business
1 answer:
Sladkaya [172]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The bad debt account will be debited with $3,250

Explanation:

This explains the principle of double entry. For every debit entry you will have a corresponding credit entry

In recognizing a risk (likely uncollectible debts) to Asset (account receivables) and Net income (overstated Revenue) the Allowance for doubtful debt Account will be credited with a provision (1% which comes to $3,250 as in the case with our question) to draw down the value of our receivables to a more sensible number and our Bad debt expense account takes the debit, to reflect a more defendable Net income to our shareholders

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A machine with a cost of $75,000 has an estimated residual value of $5,000 and an estimated life of 4 years. What is the amount
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Answer:

$18,750

Explanation:

The double declining method of depreciation (DDB) formula is:

DDB= 2 * Cost of the asset * Depreciation rate (DR)

DR= (1/useful life)*100

For this problem:

Value to depreciate: $75,000

DR= (1/4)*100= 25%

DEPRECIATION YEAR 1: DDB= 2 * $75,000*25%= $37,500

Machine´s value year 1: $75,000-$37,500= $37,500

DEPRECIATION YEAR 2: DDB= 2*37,500*25%= $18,750

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Although income is earned continuously, companies measure income for a specific period of time. Accountants refer to this practi
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Answer: Time period assumption.

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3 0
3 years ago
In a market system, scarce goods are allocated through the operation of fixed prices that are determined by consumers and produc
anygoal [31]

Answer:

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3 0
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Answer:

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Explanation:

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Cheers

4 0
3 years ago
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