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Zepler [3.9K]
3 years ago
8

1. When the percent of uncollectible accounts on current accounts ls 1% and the unadjusted balance in allowance for doubtful acc

ounts is a credit of
$3,250, the entry for bad debt expense is a debit to bad debt expense for $​
Business
1 answer:
Sladkaya [172]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The bad debt account will be debited with $3,250

Explanation:

This explains the principle of double entry. For every debit entry you will have a corresponding credit entry

In recognizing a risk (likely uncollectible debts) to Asset (account receivables) and Net income (overstated Revenue) the Allowance for doubtful debt Account will be credited with a provision (1% which comes to $3,250 as in the case with our question) to draw down the value of our receivables to a more sensible number and our Bad debt expense account takes the debit, to reflect a more defendable Net income to our shareholders

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1. In order to calculate the dividend per share in year 2 and the dividend per share in year 3 we would have to make the following calculation:

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2. In order to calculate the current market value of the firm we would have to make the following calculation:

market value of the firm=Currect Share Price * Number of outstanding shares

According to the given data:

Currect Share Price=$50

Number of outstanding shares=1 million shares

market value of the firm=$50*1 million shares

market value of the firm=$50 million

3. In order to calculate the value of the firm next year after the payout we would have to calculate first the rate of return as follows:

value of the firm =dividend per share in year 1/rate  of return-growth rate

$50* Rate of Return - 4 = $2

Rate of Return = 6 / 50

Rate of Return =12%

Therefore, value of the firm next year after the payout=dividend per share in year 2/rate  of return-growth rate

value of the firm next year after the payout=$2.16/0.12-0.08

value of the firm next year after the payout=$ 54

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