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photoshop1234 [79]
3 years ago
12

PLEASE HELP! Is my answer correct?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Minchanka [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

yes this is right

Step-by-step explanation:

the triangle MOQ is icosceles and angle O is 150 degrees so that leaves 30/2... 15.

Oxana [17]3 years ago
3 0

We know angle P is 90 degrees because of Thales Theorem, and angle N is 60 degrees. Because the angles in a triangle have to add up to 180 degrees, angle PMN has to be 30 degrees.

Angle QMO is half of angle PMN, so it's 15 degrees. Angle MQO is equal to angle QMO because the radii make Triangle OQM isosceles, so angle MQO is 15 degrees.

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N x n x n^4/ n^2<br> write as a single power.
bekas [8.4K]
N^4

1 + 1 + 4 - 2 = 4

Mark brainliest
5 0
2 years ago
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Kolton has 2 5/6 pounds of apples. His mom buys 4 5/12 pounds more at the store so they can make an apple pie. If the apple pie
xeze [42]

Answer:

5 1/24 pounds of apples will be leftover

Step-by-step explanation:

By setting a common denominator while adding ot subtracting the pounds of apples, it helps lead to the answer.

8 0
3 years ago
The key on a stem-and-leaf plot shows that 1|9 represents 19. How would the number 402 be represented?
Andrew [12]
Hi again,

We need to find the key on a stem-and-leaf of the number 402 being represented.

<span>40|2 is your best answer

</span>Remember the last digit is the leaf and the rest of the numbers is the stem.

Hope this helped! :)
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3 years ago
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a candy machine holds 500 pieces of candy, 20%, percent of which are blue. customers get an srs of 4 pieces of candy per purchas
Greeley [361]

Answer:

p(b = 1) = 0.4096 = 40.96%

Step-by-step explanation:

For each candy, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is blue, or it is not. The probability of a candy being blue is independent of any other candy. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

20% are blue

This means that p = 0.2

Sample of 4

This means that n = 4.

Which of the following would find p(b=1)?

P(X = 1). So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{4,1}.(0.2)^{1}.(0.8)^{3} = 0.4096

So, p(b = 1) = 0.4096 = 40.96%

6 0
3 years ago
The function c(p) represents the total cost for a factory to produce p parts. c(p)=12.5p+4500 What does the value 4500 represent
deff fn [24]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

c(p)=12.5p+4500

12.5p means that for each part it will cost $12.50, but the initial cost is $4500.  



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