Answer:
69.5
Step-by-step explanation:
Formula = 1/2 ( b1 + b2)h
base 1 + base 2 = 220
7645 x 2 = 14000 + 1200 + 80 + 10 = 15290
15290 / 220 = 764.5
H = 69.5
Lets check
1/2(220 x 69.5)
1/2(15290) = 7645
correct
If my answer is incorrect, pls correct me!
If you like my answer and explanation, mark me as brainliest!
-Chetan K
-Notice that dividing our numbers leaves no remainder:
1,620 ÷ 5 = 324 + 0
-1,620 has all the factors of the number 5
[/tex]
This changes to a mix fraction
3 [tex] \frac{5}{9}
Answer:
0.67>2/3
Step-by-step explanation:
If you divide 2 by 3, you will end up with 0.6.
Now, you can compare the two numbers 0.6 and 0.67.
Since there are two black queens out of 52 cards, there is a 2/52 chance of drawing a black queen first. This is equivalent to a 1/26 chance.
Now that we have removed a black queen, there are 51 cards left in the deck. 26 of them are red because we only took away a black card. This means that there is a 26/51 of drawing a red card next.
In order to find the probability of both of these happening, we multiply the two together. 1/26 * 26/51 = 26/1326. This reduces to 1/51. So, there is a 1/51 chance of drawing a black queen, then a red card.
