Answer:
have no idea lol im terrible at math
Answer:
FV = P(1 + r/t)^nt; where P is the initial investment, r is the rate, t is the number of accumulation in a year, n is the number of years.
FV = 7650(1 + 0.05/4)^(9 x 4) = 7650(1 + 0.0125)^36 = 7650(1.0125)^36 = 7650(1.564) = $11,964.17
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
It is a diagnal line that goes through (0,0) and (1,1) and has a slope of 1
Step-by-step explanation:
This is simply what I wrote for my assignment, sorry I am a bit late.
<em>It was confusing when she took out the negative and postive pairs, but then I soon knew that the negative tiles are like subtracting positive tiles. Then once she got the total I was amazed with how easy it was to find out the value of x.</em>
hope this helps! <3
Because it is a fraction thats why. ok