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hram777 [196]
3 years ago
15

What adds to get 5 but multiplies to get 1

Mathematics
1 answer:
Margarita [4]3 years ago
6 0
You - 4 from 5 then 1 left then 1 multiple by 1 ....answer is 1
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Given three balls and four boxes. Assume the boxes are numbered 1, 2 ,3 and 4.Place the ball one by one into the boxes randomly.
KengaRu [80]

Answer:

The value of E(X) is 1.56

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of Boxes=4

Number of Balls =3

If X is the number of box in which the balls are than the number of balls in the box are given as ((4-X)+1)^3

Number of ways such that all the balls are in the box number 4, no balls in the first three boxes is given as n(x=4)=1^3=1

Number of ways such that all the balls are in the box number 3,  is given as n(x=3)=n(x=2)-n(x=4)=2^3-1^3=7

Number of ways such that all the balls are in the box number 2,  is given as n(x=2)=n(x=1)-n(x=3)=3^3-2^3=19

Number of ways such that all the balls are in the box number 1,  is given as n(x=1)=n(x=4)-n(x=3)=4^3-3^3=37

So the total number of ways are

n(total)=n(x=4)+n(x=3)+n(x=2)+n(x=1)

n(total)=1+7+19+37=64

So Probabilities are given as

p(x=1)=n(x=1)/n(total)=37/64

p(x=2)=n(x=2)/n(total)=19/64

p(x=3)=n(x=3)/n(total)=7/64

p(x=4)=n(x=4)/n(total)=1/64

So the E(x) is given as

E(X)=\sum^{n}_{i=1}p_ix_i\\E(X)=\sum^{4}_{i=1}p_ix_i\\E(X)=x_1p_1+x_2p_2+x_3p_3+x_4p_4\\E(X)=1\times\dfrac{37}{64}+2\times\dfrac{19}{64}+3\times\dfrac{7}{64}+4\times\dfrac{1}{64}\\E(X)=\dfrac{25}{16}=1.56

So the value of E(X) is 1.56

5 0
3 years ago
Which expression represents the algebraic phrase “eleven less than seven times a number”?
Rzqust [24]
The answer would be 7x - 11.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A function f(x) = x^2 - 4 has a domain as the set of integers
mel-nik [20]

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = (x+2)(x-2)

Substituting x=1 into f(x):

f(1) = 3*-1

     = -3

Since -2 & 2 touch the x-axis, 1 has a negative y value, 2 has a y value of 0, and all values from 2, are positive.

Hence,

3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 are all positive. Therefore, the answer is 8

This can be confirmed with a graph, as attached below.

<em>Feel free to mark this as brainliest! :D</em>

5 0
2 years ago
Divide (16x6 − 12x4 + 4x2) by 4x2.
Degger [83]
We know that
<span>(16x6 − 12x4 + 4x2) / 4x2
is equal to
[16x6/4x2]+[-12x4/4x2]+[4x2/4x2]
=[4x4]+[-3x2]+[1]
=4x4-3x2+1

the answer is
</span>4x4-3x2+1<span>

</span>
6 0
3 years ago
Is 40/1000 equivalent to 40%
V125BC [204]
No, 40/1000 is equal to 4%. 40/100 or 400/1000 would be 40%
3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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