80 = -1(80), -2(40), -4(20), -5(4),
Total answers include: -81, 79, -42, 16, -9, and 1.
None of them add up to 6!
Are you doing polynomial equations?
If so, you can solve it the hard way.
x^2 + 6x -80 = 0
(x^2 + 6x + 9) - 80 = 9
(x+3)^2 = 89
(x+3) = 9.43
x = 6.43
If you're not doing those then I'm afraid your question has no answer.
Hope that helps!
9514 1404 393
Answer:
₹14000
Step-by-step explanation:
Let c represent the cost price, and m represent the marked price.
c × (1 +40%) = m
m × (1 -15%) - c = ₹1900
Using the first expression for m, the second equation becomes ...
1.40c×0.85 -c = ₹1900
0.19c = ₹1900
c = ₹1900/0.19 = ₹10000
Then the marked price was ...
m = 1.40c = 1.40×₹10000 = ₹14000
The marked price was ₹14000.
_____
The selling price was ₹11900.
mark must leave it for 5.5 months or 5 and half moths to gain 5600 in interest .
<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>
Here we have , mark invests 8000 in an account that pays 12% interest and 2000 in one that pays 8%. if he leaves the money in the accounts for the same length of time, We need to find how long must he leave it to gain 5600 in interest . Let's find out:
Let mark invests 8000 in an account that pays 12% interest and 2000 in one that pays 8% for time x months , So total interest gain is 5600 i.e.
⇒ 
⇒ 
⇒ 
⇒ 
⇒ 
⇒ 
⇒ 
Therefore , mark must leave it for 5.5 months or 5 and half moths to gain 5600 in interest .
(4*10,000)+(8*1,000)+(2*100)+(4*10)+(3*1)
40,000+8,000+200+40+3=48,243
That is one way. You can also do this using exponential form!
Hope that helps
Answer:
We can find the individual probabilities:
And replacing we got:
![P(X \geq 5) = 1-[0.00114+0.009282+0.0358+0.0869+0.149]= 0.7178](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%5Cgeq%205%29%20%3D%201-%5B0.00114%2B0.009282%2B0.0358%2B0.0869%2B0.149%5D%3D%200.7178)
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
And we want to find this probability:

And we can use the complement rule:
We can find the individual probabilities:
And replacing we got:
![P(X \geq 5) = 1-[0.00114+0.009282+0.0358+0.0869+0.149]= 0.7178](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%5Cgeq%205%29%20%3D%201-%5B0.00114%2B0.009282%2B0.0358%2B0.0869%2B0.149%5D%3D%200.7178)