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Tpy6a [65]
3 years ago
9

On January 1, Lorraine, Inc., entered into a lease contract. The lease contract was a ten-year lease for a computer with $16,000

annual lease payments due at the end of each year. Lorraine took possession of the computer on January 1. The present value of the lease payments under the lease contract is $117,761. Prepare the journal entry for this lease on January 1
Business
1 answer:
lana [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Right of Use Asset - Computer $117,761 (debit)

Lease Liability$117,761 (credit)

Explanation:

The Lease period is more than 12 months, thus this type of lease is called <em>finance lease</em>.

Lorraine, Inc must recognise the <em>Right of Use of the Computer</em> and the <em>Lease Liability </em>at the inception of the lease.

The lease liability is measured at the <em>Present Value of lease payments</em> of $117,761. Right of Use Asset is measured at the <em>Fair Value of Lease Liability</em> of $117,761.

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Answer:

I think the answer is C.

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A student looking at the timeline for a student loan on page 60 of the text makes the following​ observation: The text states th
Brrunno [24]

Answer: A. incorrect because part of each payment is to principal and to interest.​ Therefore, only a portion of the payment goes to​ interest, so the full amount should not be included when computing the rate of interest paid.

Explanation:

When paying back a loan, there are two components to the periodic interest payment. The first component is the interest payment. This is the payment to compensate the borrower for loaning out the money and is based on the interest rate and the principal left to be repaid.

The second component goes towards repaying the principal of the loan which in this case is $10,000. When computing the periodic interest rate therefore, the entire amount paid per period should not be used as it would inflate the interest rate.

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3 years ago
A company has only two divisions: division a and division
Sloan [31]

Answer – Division A

 

EXPLANATION’

 

Given for last year,

Division A made 60% of the company's total revenue.

Let the company’s total revenue for last year be x

60% of x = 0.6x

Division A made 0.6x last year

 

Also given for last year,

Division B made 40% of the company's total revenue.

If the company’s total revenue for last year is x

40% of x = 0.4x

Division B made 0.4x last year

 

For this year,

We are told that division A's revenue has decreased by 35%

Last year’s revenue was 0.6x

Division A’s revenue for this year = 0.6x – (35% of 0.6x)

= (100% of 0.6x) – (35% of 0.6x)

= (100% * 0.6x) – (35% * 0.6x)

= (100% - 35%) * 0.6x

= 65% * 0.6x

= 65/100 * 0.6x

= 0.39x

Therefore this year, Division A’s revenue is 0.39x

 

Again for this year,

We are told that division B's revenue has decreased by 5%

Last year’s revenue was 0.4x

Division B’s revenue for this year = 0.4x – (5% of 0.4x)

= (100% of 0.4x) – (5% of 0.6x)

= (100% * 0.4x) – (5% * 0.4x)

= (100% - 5%) * 0.4x

= 95% * 0.4x

= 0.38x

Therefore this year, Division B’s revenue is 0.38x

 

If Division A’s revenue is 0.39x, and Division B’s revenue is 0.38x; then Division A had higher revenue this year.

4 0
3 years ago
According to a survey of American households: The probability that a household owns 2 cars, if annual income is over $25,000, is
vladimir1956 [14]

Answer: 0.48

Explanation:

P(A/B) = P(AnB)/P(B) where:

P(A/B) = The probability of event A occurring given that B has occurred.

P(AnB) = The probability of both events A and B occurring.

P(B) = the probability that event B occurs.

So let

P(A) = Probability that the residents of a household own 2 cars.

P(B) = Probability that the annual household income is greater than $25,000.

The question tells us that

P(A/B) = 0.8

Note that: P(A) = 0.7, P(B) = 0.6.

Since we want to work out P(AnB), because it gives the probability that residents have an annual household income over $25,000 and own 2 cars.

We would Rearrange our initial equation to make P(AnB) the subject formula becoming;

P(A/B) = P(AnB)/P(B)

P(B)*P(A/B) = P(AnB)

So, inserting our probabilities into this equation gives:

0.6*0.8 = 0.48

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<span>From the monopolist points of view the benefits are, holding 100% of the market, the ability to have a great influence on price and of course, no competition. 

I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly. We hope to answer more of your questions and inquiries soon. Have a nice day ahead!
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