Answer:
a) Absolute Value Inequality => Absolute(0 + y) < 2
b) -2 < y < 2
Which means, Johnson Family has to live within the range of -2 to +2 from the fire department. Otherwise, they will have to pay 500 USD as increased deductible.
Explanation:
<u><em>Johnson Family has to live within the range of -2 to +2 from the fire department.
</em></u>
<em>a) Absolute Value Equation:</em>
Absolute(0 + y) < 2
where y represent the location of the new house and 0 represents the location of the fire department.
Furthermore,
<em>Absolute(0 + y) < 2 = (0 + x) < 2 when (0 + y) is +ve. </em>
and
<em>Absolute(0+y) <2 = -(0 + x) < 2 when (0 + y) is -ve.
</em>
b) When (0 + y) is +ve,
we have, (0 + y) < 2.
<em>Solving for y and subtracting 0 from both sides. </em>
0-0 + y < 2 - 0
<em>y < 2</em>
and when (0 + y) is -ve,
<em>we have, - (0 + y) < 2.
</em>
Solving for y:
- 0 - y < 2
multiplying negative from both sides
<em>y > - 2</em>
<em>So, we have -2 < y < 2 </em>
<em>Johnson Family has to live within the range of -2 to +2 from the fire department. Otherwise, they will have to pay 500 USD as increased deductible. </em>
Answer:
It is departmentalized in a functional way
Explanation:
Functional departmentalization is the type of organizational structure based on common job functions. In Mitchell's case all similar jobs, like legal or marketing, are grouped in one place or on the same floor. This type of organization provides space for further employee's specialization by putting staff in places where their skills can further develop.
Answer:
The answer is Monopoly
Explanation:
Monopoly describes the situation which supply of a service or commodity is controlled by a specific enterprise or person. The situation gives rise to what is known as a mopolisitic market structure.
A monopolistic market, like the term implies, describes a market that is dominated by just one company. In other words, it is just a single company that offers services and products to the public.
Being the only supplier, the company can raise prices, restrict output and enjoy super-normal profits.
Answer:
Dr Interest expense $33,500
Cr Discount on bonds payable $1,100
Cr Cash $32,400
Explanation:
Discount on bonds payable=$540,000-$529,000=$11,000
Amortization of discount=discount on bonds issue/period of the bond
period to maturity of the bond is 5 years *2 =10 since the bond pays interest semi-annually
Amortization =$11,000/10=$1,100
Semi-annual interest=$540,000*12%/2=$32,400
the bond semi-annual interest expense=discount amortization+interest payment
the bond semi-annual interest expense=$32,400+$1,100=$33,500
