Answer:
Total Contribution Margin= $50,388
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Sales (3,400 units) $ 88,400
Variable expenses 43,316
We need to calculate the selling price and unitary variable cost:
Selling price= 88,400/3,400= $26
Unitary variable cost= 43,316/3,400= $12.74
Now, we can calculate the total contribution margin for 3,800 units.
Sales= 26*3,800= 98,800
Variable cost= 12.74*3,800= (48,412)
Contribution margin= 50,388
Answer:
6.04%
Explanation:
The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) can be described as the average rate that is expected that a business will pay to finance its assets to all holders of its security.
The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) can be estimated as the summation of the products of the weight of each loan in the total loan and their interest rate for this question as follows:
Total loan amount = $1,823 + $1,533 + $644 = 4,000
Weight of loan from Wendy = $1,823 / $4,000 = 0.46, or 46%
Weight of loan from Bebe = $1,533 / $4,000 = 0.38, or 38%
Weight of loan from Shelly = $644 / $4,000 = 0.16, or 16%
Weighted average cost of capital = (46% * 4%) + (38% * 6%) + (16% * 12%) = 6.04%.
Therefore, the weighted average cost of capital for Eric is 6.04%.
Answer:
a. Debt holders have first claim on corporate value. The Preferred stockholders then have next claim and remaining is left for common stockholders.
b. The value of a financial asset is equal to present value of future cash flows which is provided by the asset. When investor buys a share of stock, (s)he typically expects to receive cash in the form of dividends and to sell the stock to receive cash from sale. However, the price any investor receives is highly dependent upon the dividends which the next investor expects to receive, and so on. Thus, the stock's value depends on cash dividends that the company is expected to provide and the discount rate used to find the present value of those dividends.
d. The formula to calculate present value of expected free cash flows is:
PVn=CFn(1+in)n
The formula for the present value of expected free cash flows when discounted at WACC is:
PV=∑Nn=0CFn(1+in)n
Explanation:
a. Debt holders have first claim on corporate value. The Preferred stockholders then have next claim and remaining is left for common stockholders.
b. The value of a financial asset is equal to present value of future cash flows which is provided by the asset. When investor buys a share of stock, (s)he typically expects to receive cash in the form of dividends and to sell the stock to receive cash from sale. However, the price any investor receives is highly dependent upon the dividends which the next investor expects to receive, and so on. Thus, the stock's value depends on cash dividends that the company is expected to provide and the discount rate used to find the present value of those dividends.
d. The formula to calculate present value of expected free cash flows is:
PVn=CFn(1+in)n
The formula for the present value of expected free cash flows when discounted at WACC is:
PV=∑Nn=0CFn(1+in)n
As long as you have no dependents
1040EZ is the simplified tax paying form made by IRS. In order to use it you juts have to select your tax filling status and enter some details for your tax counting.
But if you have a dependent ( like a spouse who claimed that you should pay for your child's education fund) , you can not use 1040EZ
The first step must his company take to achieve this goal is: earn profit.
<h3>What is profit?</h3>
Profit is what a person gain from the sell of products after deducting their expenses and other production cost.
In order for the company to achieve their set goals which is to fulfil the economic foundation business they need to first of all earn profits from their business.
Therefore the company needs to earn profit.
Learn more about profit here:brainly.com/question/24553900
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