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WINSTONCH [101]
3 years ago
6

Using the formula C = 2, find the circumference of a circle with diameter of 20 inches. Round your answer to the nearest inch

Mathematics
2 answers:
Svetllana [295]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The circumference is approximately 314 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

3.14 x r^2

3.14 x 10^2

3.14 x 100

Circumference: 314

Ivenika [448]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:62.8inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Diameter=20 inches

π=3.14

Circumference=π x diameter

Circumference=3.14 x 20

Circumference=62.8inches

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If |a| = |b| then does a = b?
kondor19780726 [428]

Answer:

yes, if |a|=|b| then a = b......

3 0
3 years ago
−3x + y = 4,<br><br> −9x + 5y = −1<br> find x and y
katrin [286]

Answer:

9x - 3y = -12

-9x +5y = -1

2y = -13

y = -13/2

-3x - 13/2 = 8/2

-3x = 21/2

-6x = 21

x = -21/6 = -7/2

(-7/2, -13/2)

3 0
3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
4 years ago
Explain how to subtract three digit numbers when u need to regroup hundreds and tens
kumpel [21]

when you subtract numbers with three digits its almost exactly the same as regular subtracting but with decimals.


8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help. The picture is below
mihalych1998 [28]

Answer:

yea you got it right its c

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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