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Sergeeva-Olga [200]
3 years ago
8

A feasible solution is a local minimum if there are no other feasible solutions with a a. set of points defining the minimum pos

sible risk in the entire feasible region. b. same objective function value in the entire feasible region. c. smaller objective function value in the immediate neighborhood. d. same objective function value in the immediate neighborhood.
Business
1 answer:
Anastasy [175]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

c.

Explanation:

A feasible solution is a local minimum if there are no other feasible solutions with a smaller objective function value in the immediate neighborhood. This is because the local minimum refers to a point whose value is less (lower than) all of the other individual values that are in close proximity to it, therefore its immediate neighborhood.

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Among the greatest failures of the process of collectivization in China was Group of answer choices trying to convert desert and
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

C. the starvation of up to 35 million people.

Explanation:

Collectivization was first introduced in the USSR by Joseph Stalin between 1929-1933 and his purpose for starting this process was to limit the powers of the Kulaks, who were the rich peasants. The program was also aimed at improving agriculture. China adopted this same policy under the rule of Mao Zedong between 1949-1976. Also known as <em>The Great Leap Forward </em>era, this process sought to make China a socialist economy and also increase productivity in agriculture.

The resultant effect of this process was mass starvation of about 35 million people in 1959. Although the government referred to floods and droughts as the cause of this starvation, it was actually the result of collectivization. When Diang Xiaping came into power in 1978, he instituted reforms in the collectivization process that proved successful.

3 0
3 years ago
Carrying Amount $120,000 Selling Price $80,000 Costs of Disposal $5,000 Expected Future Cash Flows $90,000 Present Value of expe
frez [133]

Answer:

$35,000

Explanation:

Under IAS 36, an asset is said to be impaired where the carrying amount is more than the recoverable amount.

The recoverable amount is the higher of the fair value less cost to sell or the value in use which is the present value of the expected future cashflow.

Given that;

Carrying Amount = $120,000

Selling Price = $80,000

Costs of Disposal = $5,000

Hence fair value less cost to sell = $80,000 - $5,000 = $75,000  

Expected Future Cash Flows = $90,000

Present Value of expected future cash flows = $85,000 ( this is the value in use)

Recoverable amount = $85,000 (since the value in use is higher that the fair value less cost to sell)

This is lower than the carrying amount hence the asset is impaired.

Impairment = $120,000 - $85,000

= $35,000

8 0
3 years ago
Piazza, a pedestrian, was injured when struck by a vehicle driven by Delaney, who ran a stop sign. At the time of the accident,
Ghella [55]

Answer:

Piazza should sue DGA Corporation because he (or she?) was struck by a company vehicle and the driver was acting within the scope of his normal employment tasks. Piazza might also sue Delaney along with DGA, since DGA is a small corporation and as a corporation is considered a separate legal entity whose shareholder equity might be really low.  

Piazza can sue for compensatory damages including pain and suffering, medical bills and lost wages.

6 0
4 years ago
The interest paid on a municipal bond, otherwise known as a muni, is generally exempt from federal income taxes. therefore, the
Ratling [72]
That statement is true
A corporate Bond is way more senstive to the condition of the market which will affect the volatility of its value. Since government could technically produce their money from the federal reserve, the municipal bond is technically will always be paid (by risking inflation)
4 0
4 years ago
produces sports socks. The company has fixed expenses of $ 80 comma 000 and variable expenses of $ 0.80 per package. Each packag
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Unitary variable expenses= $ 0.80

Selling price per unit= $ 1.60

First, we need to calculate the unitary contribution margin:

Unitary contribution margin= selling price - unitary variable cost

Unitary contribution margin= 1.6 - 0.8

Unitary contribution margin= $0.8

Now, the contribution margin ratio:

contribution margin ratio= contribution margin / sellig price

contribution margin ratio= 0.8/1.6

contribution margin ratio= 0.5

7 0
3 years ago
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