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Alex787 [66]
3 years ago
6

Smith Office Equipment​ Company's budgeted manufacturing overhead is $ 4 comma 500 comma 000. Overhead is allocated on the basis

of direct labor hours. The budgeted direct labor hours for the period are 60 comma 000. What is the manufacturing overhead​ rate?
Business
1 answer:
mr_godi [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$75

Explanation:

We know,

Manufacturing overhead​ rate = Budgeted manufacturing overhead ÷ Budgeted direct labor hours

Given,

Budgeted manufacturing overhead = $4,500,000

Budgeted direct labor hours = 60,000

Putting the values into the manufacturing rate formula, we can get,

Manufacturing overhead​ rate = $4,500,000 ÷ 60,000 hours

Manufacturing overhead​ rate = $75 per labor hour.

When the standard amount of factory cost is allocated to the production of every unit, it is called the overhead manufacturing rate.

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Two investment advisers are comparing performance. One averaged a 19% return and the other a 16% return. However, the beta for t
finlep [7]

Answer: Adviser B is the superior stock selector.

Explanation:

For the comparision between the two investment advisers, the Jenson's Alpha will be utilized.

Jenson's Alpha:

= Portfolio Actual Return - CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio Return)

T Bill Rate(Risk free rate) = 6%

Market return(E(Em) = 14%

Beta of Investment Adviser A = 1.5

Beta of Investment Adviser B = 1

For Adviser A:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 6 + 1.5 (14-6)

= 6 + 12

= 18%

Actual Return = 19%

Jenson's Alpha = 19% - 18% = 1%

For Adviser B:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 6 + 1(14-6) = 6 + 1(8) = 14%

Actual Return = 16%

Jenson's Alpha = 16% - 14% = 2%

Adviser B is a better selector because he has a larger alpha of 2% compared to Adviser A who has 1%.

T Bill Rate(Risk free rate) = 3%

Market return(E(Rm) = 15%

Beta of Investment Adviser A = 1.5

Beta of Investment Adviser B = 1

For Adviser A:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 3 + 1.5 (15-3)

= 3 + 18

= 21%

Actual Return = 19%

Jenson's Alpha = 19% - 21% = -2%

For Adviser B:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 3 + 1(15-3) = 3 + 1(12) = 15%

Actual Return = 16%

Jenson's Alpha = 16% - 15% = 1%

Given the changes, Adviser B is still the better selector because he has a larger alpha of 1% compared to Adviser A who has -2%.

7 0
3 years ago
_________Is a dynamic, two-way process that can be broken down into six phases
Tpy6a [65]

Interpersonal Communication

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Weiland Co. shows the following information on its 2016 income statement: sales = $162,500; costs = $80,000; other expenses = $3
wel

Answer:

The 2016 operating cash flow is $56,905

Explanation:

The computation of the operating cash flow is shown below:

Operating cash flow = Sales - costs - other expenses - depreciation expenses  - taxes + depreciation expense

= $162,500 - $80,000 - $3,300 - $9,000 - $22,295 + $9,000

= $56,905

The interest expense should not be considered in the computation part. Hence, ignored it

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following makes it more difficult for an incumbent to successfully engage in limit pricing? Multiple Choice Complet
kirill115 [55]

Answer:

Complete information

Explanation:

A limiting pricing can be described as a strategy that is employed by an incumbent to prevent entry by maintaining a price lower than the monopoly price.

In situation whereby there is completion information, it will be more difficult for an incumbent to successfully engage in limit pricing because knowledge about the incumbent, the market, product, and others is available to others.

7 0
3 years ago
A firm commitment arrangement with an investment banker occurs when the: issue is solidly accepted in the market as evidenced by
Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

A firm commitment arrangement with an investment banker occurs when an investment banker buys the securities for less than the offering price and accepts the risk of not being able to sell them.

The correct option is B.

Explanation:

A firm commitment arrangement happens when an investment banker buys the securities for less than the offering price and accepts the risk of not being able to sell them.

However, the issuer receives a little less money than the offering price but he gets a specific amount for all the security being issued. The risk rests completely on the investment banker.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

6 0
3 years ago
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