I think its D. hope this helps
Answer:
$240; $160
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
As we know that
if there is 40% of money engaged in the risk portfolio is
= $1000 × 40%
= $400
Now amount in X is
= $400 × 0.60
= $240
And, the amount in Y is
= $400 × 0.40
= $160
hence, the last option is correct
All other valeus i.e. given in the question is not relevant. hence, ignored it
Answer:
The ending balance of Allowance for Bad Debts account is $800
Explanation:
The computation of the ending balance of allowance for bad debt is shown below:
= Credit sales × uncollectible rate
= $40,000 × 2%
= $800
The estimated amount would be considered as an allowance for bad debts i.e $800, So no other amount would be come while computing the ending balance of Allowance for Bad Debts account.
However, the other information which is given in the question is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
Answer:
B. is so near its maturity that it presents insignificant risk of changes in interest rates
Explanation:
please see attachment
