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Ulleksa [173]
3 years ago
6

A government bond with a coupon rate of 7% makes semiannual coupon payments on January 15 and July 15 of each year. The Wall Str

eet Journal reports the asked price for the bond on January 30 at $1,001.25. What is the invoice price of the bond? The coupon period has 182 days.
Business
1 answer:
WINSTONCH [101]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

invoice price (dirty price) = $1,004.13

Explanation:

semi-annual coupon = $1,000 x 7% x 1/2 = $35

clean price = $1,001.25

accrued interest = (Jan. 30 - Jan. 15) x $35 x 1/182 = $2.88

invoice price (dirty price) = clean price + accrued interest = $1,001.25 + $2.88 = $1,004.13

the dirty price or invoice price of a bond includes any accrued interest that the bond may have earned in the period between the last coupon payment and the transaction date.

You might be interested in
GenX has a target capital structure of 40 percent common stock, 5 percent preferred stock, and 55 percent debt. Its cost of equi
AVprozaik [17]

Answer:

12.085 %

Explanation:

WACC = Cost of Equity x Weight of Equity + Cost of Preference Stock x Weight of Preference Stock + Cost of Debt x Weight of Debt

Remember to use the after tax cost of debt :

after tax cost of debt = interest x ( 1 - tax rate)

                                   = 8.00 % x (1 - 0.35)

                                   = 5.20 %

therefore,

WACC = 22.00 % x 0.40 + 8.50 % x 0.05 + 5.20 % x 0.55

           = 12.085 %

thus

the firm's WACC given a tax rate of 35 percent is 12.085 %

6 0
3 years ago
The stockholders' equity section of Jun Company's balance sheet as of April 1 follows. On April 2 Jun declares and distributes a
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

i am sorry i do not know

Explanation:

sorry

5 0
3 years ago
Ponzi Products produced 100 chain-letter kits this quarter, resulting in a total cash outlay of $10 per unit. It will sell 50 of
vesna_86 [32]

Answer:

Explanation:

From the given information: we are to:

a)  Prepare an income statement for Ponzi for today and for each of the next three quarters. Ignore taxes. (LO1)

An income statement involves depicts the achievement of a certain business over  a period of time .

The income statement for Ponzi for today and for each of the next three quarters is as follows:

                        Quarter 1      Quarter 2       Quarter 3        Quarter 4

Sales                   $0                  $550              $600             $0

 (-)

cost of goods       0                   $500              $500             $0

sold

Net income           0                  $50                 $100               0

We will see that  in the first and the fourth quarter ; the firm neither pay any cash to purchase goods nor collect cash for sales. Thus ; the cashflow will be zero in those instances and we will consider only the second and the fourth quarter for sales income and production cost.

SO:

Quarter 2 sales = 50 × 11 = $550

Quarter 3 sales = 50 × 12 = $600

(b) What are the cash flows for the company today and in each of the next three quarters?

Cash flow is like a database that helps to keep tracks and records the cash inflows and cash outflows of a financial instrument.

The cash flow in each month is as follows:

                        Quarter 1      Quarter 2       Quarter 3        Quarter 4

Sales                   $0                  $550              $600             $0

 (-)

cost of goods       0                   $500              $500             $0

sold

Net income           0                  $50                 $100               0

Inventories         $1000          $500                   0                  0

Account

Receivables       0                    550                  600                0

Net working

capital                 $1000          $1050             $600                0

Change in WC   $1000           $50                 $450              $600

CashFlow           $1000          $0                  $550              $600

Hint:

The Cash flow = net income - change in net working capital

The net working capital = Inventory + Account receivables

Quarter 2 sales = 50 × 11 = $550

Quarter 3 sales = 50 × 12 = $600

(c) What is Ponzi’s net working capital in each quarter? (LO1)

The net working capital in each quarter can be illustrated as :

                        Quarter 1      Quarter 2       Quarter 3        Quarter 4

Inventories        $1000             $500              0                    $0

Account recei-    0                   $550              $600             $0

vables

Net working       $1000             $1050           $600               $0

capital

8 0
3 years ago
A 4 percent increase in the price of beer will cause a 1 percent decline in the quantity of beer demanded. The demand for beer i
Tasya [4]

Answer:

The demand for beer is inelastic

Explanation:

Price Elasticity of Demand (PED) is the measure of responsiveness of the demand of a consumer to a product to a change in the price of the product. The formula is percentage change in quantity demanded divided by percentage change in price.

A PED of greater than 1 is elastic, meaning that the demand for a product is sensitive to the very small change in price.

A PED of less than 1 is said to be inelastic, which implies that there is no significant change in the quantity demanded when the price changes. In our example, the PED is inelastic because:

PED = \frac{\%\ change\ in\ demand}{\%\ change\ in\ price}\\ PED =\frac{1}{4} \\PED = 0.25

since 0.25 is less than 1, PED is inelastic

Finally, if the ratio of the percentage changes in both quantities demanded and price equals 1, it is said to be unit elastic. This means that there is a proportionate change in quantity demanded with a change in price.

3 0
3 years ago
RKI Instruments borrowed $4,100,000 from a private equity firm for expansion of its facility for manufacturing carbon monoxide m
QveST [7]

Answer:

29.88%(30% when rounded to the nearest whole percentage)

Explanation:

The amount borrowed was the present value of the loan while the amount repaid was the future value of the loan, hence, considering the relationship between the present value and the future value, we can determine the interest rate on the loan as shown thus:

FV=PV*(1+r)^n

FV=future value=the repayment=$5,325,000

PV=present value=loan amount= $4,100,000

r=rate of interest=the unknown

n=the duration of the loan=1 year

$5,325,000= $4,100,000*(1+r)^1

$5,325,000/$4,100,000=1+r

r=($5,325,000/$4,100,000)-1

r=1.298780488 -1

r=29.88%

3 0
3 years ago
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