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aksik [14]
3 years ago
6

Suppose executives at an art museum know that 100 adults are willing to pay $12 for admission to the museum on a weekday. Suppos

e the executives also know that 200 students are willing to pay $8 for admission on a weekday. The cost of operating the museum on a weekday is $2,000. How much profit will the museum earn if it engages in price discrimination?
$1,200
$2,600
$1,600
$800
Business
1 answer:
tresset_1 [31]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$800

Explanation:

Price discrimination is a technique used by business owners and business in general that consists on chargin a certain group the maximum they are willing to pay for the product of service, in this case it would be $12 for adults and $8 for students, to know how much they will make we just multiply the cost of the tickets by the tickets bought, and the fmor that withdraw the cost of operation.

Tickets*Tickets cost=Earnings\\($12*100)+($8*200)=\\(1200)+(1600)=$2800

Now we know the museum made $2800 in tickets, we take out the $2000 of the operational cost, and we are left with $800 wich would be the net profit for the museum.

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3 years ago
Financial data for Joel de Paris, Inc., for last year follow:
suter [353]

Answer:

profit margin: 7.09%

<u />

<u>Turnover: </u>

Assets : 1.85

Account Receivable: 11.53

Inventory: 9.05

ROI: 28.94%

2.- residual income 91,395

Explanation:

sales 4,700,000

net income 333,000

<u>profit margin:</u>

net income / sales

333,000 / 4,700,000 = 0,070851 = 7.09%

<u>Turnovers:</u>

Will be sales over an asset account to calcualte how many times  the assets converts to cash or rotate.

the average will be calcualte as (beginning + ending)/2

<em>Assets turnover:</em>

sales/average assets

sales 4,700,000

(2,505,000 + 2,585,000) / 2 = 2,545,000

Ratio: 1,8467 = 1.85

<em>Account Receivable Turnover:</em>

sales/ average turnover

sales 4,700,000

(344,000 +471,000)/2 = 407,500

Ratio: 11,5337 = 11.53

<em>Inventory Turnover</em>

Sales/ average inventory

Sales 4,700,000

(568,000 + 471,000)/2 = 519,500

Inventory turnover: 9,04716 = 9.05

<u>ROI</u>

net income / average equity

<u>where:</u>

average equity : (beginning + ending)/2

1,092,000 + 1,209,000 = 1,150,500

333,000/1,150,500 = 0,28943

<u></u>

<u>Residual income:</u>

net income - Equity x expected return

    333,000 - 1,150,500 x 0.21 =

     333,000  -  241,605‬  = 91,395

5 0
3 years ago
At Hodgson Corporation, direct materials are added at the beginning of the process and conversions costs are uniformly applied.
nika2105 [10]

Answer:

$2.25 per unit

Explanation:

The computation of the cost per equivalent is shown below:

= Total conversion cost ÷ total units completed

where,

Total conversion cost is

= Beginning work in process conversion cost + cost of conversion added

= $20,250 + 271,125

= 291,375

And, the number of units is

= Units completed + work in process ending inventory units × completion percentage

= 115,700 units + 23,000 units × 60%

= 115,700 + 13,800

= 129,500 units

So, the cost per equivalent unit for conversion cost is

= $291,375 ÷ 129,500 units

= $2.25 per unit

4 0
3 years ago
Consider two perfectly negatively correlated risky securities, X and Y. Security X has an expected rate of return of 9% and a st
Aneli [31]

Answer:

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Explanation:

The computation of the weight of security Y in the minimum variance portfolio is shown below:-

Weight of security X = Standard deviation of security Y ÷ (Sum of the standard deviation of securities)

= 39% ÷ (39% + 27%)

= 39% ÷ 66%

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Weight of security Y = 1 - Weight of security X

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5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that your colleague has accidentally spilled coffee on his laptop and the file containing your firm\'s cost data has bee
Wittaler [7]

Solution:

Q      MC       FC      VC     TC      AFC     AVC     ATC

0       NA       50        0       50       NA      NA       NA

1        50      50       50      105       50       50      105

2        19       50      64       104       20       32       52

3       85        40      149      189    13.33    49.67  63.00

4      223       40      372     412       10        93        103  

TC=FC+VC

FC=40

VC=TC-FC

MC=change in TC

AFC=FC/Q

AVC=VC/0

ATC=TC/0

a) TC when 0=0 = 40 because FC = 40 remains constant and the firm still incurs a total cost equal to its FC when it produces zero output.

b) MC for first unit = 45

c) ATC of 3rd unit = 63

d) AVC for 4th unit = 93      

6 0
3 years ago
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