Answer:
a)
P 175
Q = 250
Profit6,250
b)
P 325
Q = 875
Profit 153,125
c)
Q = 1200
P = 260
Profit = 287,000
Explanation:
It maximize profit at MR = MC
MR = 200 - 0.2Q
MC = 150
150 = 200-0.2Q
Q = 50/0.2 = Q = 250
Price:
250 = 2000 - 10P
P = 1750/10 = 175
<u></u>
<u>Profit: revenue - cost</u>
$175 x 250 session - $150 per session = 6,250
<em>At new functions:</em>
150 = 500-0.4Q
Q = 350 / 0.4 = 875
Price:
875 = 2,500 - 5P
P = (2500-875)/5= 325
<u>Profit</u>
(325 - 150) * 875 = 153,125
<u>If cost changes:</u>
cost: 1000 + 20Q
marginal cost: 20
20 = 500 - 0.4Q
Q = 480 / 0.4 = 1,200
Price:
1,200 = 2500 - 5P
P = 1300/5 = 260
<u>Profit</u>
(260 - 20)Q - 1,000 = 287,000
Answer:
The difference is attributed to sales.
Explanation:
The difference of $10 will be attributed to sales because $20 is charged instead of $30 which means selling price has been changed. However, it cannot be considered as a loss because the cost price is not given. It might be the actual cost price for the item is $15 and the store is selling at $20 instead of $30. So, in this case, the store is making a profit of $5. Thus, the difference is considered as the sale difference.
Drivers are keeping their cars longer than ever before. The average age of all cars on the road is over 11 years, up from eight years in 1995. Motorists who buy a brand-new car typically keep it for about six years, up from about four years in 2006.
mark brainliest :)
Answer:
D. Any of the above, depending on the transactions
Explanation:
The double entry principle simply means that any accounting transaction has two records: one credit, and one debit, and it depends on the nature of the transaction, and of the accounts involved which specific value is credited and which one is debited.
For example, if a firm purchases 100$ of office supplies with cash, the credited account is cash, because cash is reduced by $100, while the office supplies account is debited by the same value.
If a firm sells 100$ of office supplies instead, the office supplies inventory is credited for this value, while the same amount of cash is debited for this same amount.
Answer:
$48,000
Explanation:
The computation of the total amount paid to the preferred shareholder is shown below:
= Number of preferred stock shares × par value × dividend rate × number of years
= 1,200 shares × $100 × 10% × 4 years
= $48,000
Simply we multiplied with the number of preferred stock with the par value, its dividend rate and the time period so that the correct value can come
All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
