Yes choice B) 1/5 is correct. You are using the correct formula and steps. Nice work.
Here's another way to look at it:
When you visually plot the inverse, you reflect everything over the line y = x. What happens is that every (x,y) point swaps coordinates. So if (1,2) is on g(x), then (2,1) is on the inverse, and vice versa. Swapping the x and y values will swap the nature of the tangent slope.
For any tangent on g(x), its slope is m = (dy)/(dx)
The corresponding slope on the inverse will be n = (dx)/(dy). All that's happened here is that the numerator and denominator flipped. Again because x and y have swapped places. If you wanted, you can picture the xy axis where the vertical axis is the x axis and the horizontal axis is the y axis. That's effectively what is going on here.
So before you found that g'(1) = 5 meaning that m = 5/1 on g(x) at the point (1,2)
So n = 1/m = 1/5 for the point (2,1) on the inverse g function.
Answer:
brainly been tripping for a sec they prolly gon delete this all u can do is try to find a mod and they prolly would help u
Answer: 1/8
Step-by-step explanation:
Since flipping a coin once and it landing on tails is 1/2, multiply it by however many times you flip it, and that will be you're answer.
Answer:
Sphere Volume = (4/3) * PI * radius^3
radius = cube root (Sphere Volume) / (4/3)*PI
radius = cube root (5,600) / (4/3)*PI
radius = 11.016 cm
radius = 11 cm (rounded)
Answer is B
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
I-
Step-by-step explanation:
) 5)8%2=80)4)<em>88</em><em>=</em><em>5</em><em>=</em><em>5</em><em>=</em><em>88</em><em>=</em><em><u>9</u></em><em><u>=</u></em><em><u>5</u></em><em><u>)</u></em><em><u>5</u></em><em><u>=</u></em>
