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Varvara68 [4.7K]
3 years ago
6

Which of the following is true about the self-employed health insurance deduction? a. Medical insurance is allowed as a deductio

n, subject to a dollar limitation. b. Long-term care insurance is allowed as a deduction, subject to a dollar limitation. c. The cost of insurance for dependent children is not allowed. d. Dental insurance is not part of the allowable deduction. e. Life insurance is allowed as a deduction.
Business
1 answer:
Luden [163]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

b. Long-term care insurance is allowed as a deduction, subject to a dollar limitation.

Explanation:

Long-term care insurance is designed to provide daily benefit to the holder when he is in need of assistance do some activities related to daily living such dressing, eating, bathing, and among others.

It is possible for self employed to qualify to deduct 100% of the premium paid for long-term care insurance subject to the maximum of 2020 age-based eligible premium amounts as provided below:

Age 40 and below = $430

Age 41 - 50 = $810

Age 51-60 = $1630

Age 61-70 = $4350  

Age 71 and over = $5430

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GDP does not directly include: Select one: a. the value of goods produced domestically and sold abroad. b. the value of intermed
serg [7]

Answer:

The value of intermediate goods sold during a period.

Explanation:

GDP: <em>Gross domestic product</em> include the services and the value of finished products in a given period.

However, the <em>intermediary goods </em>aren't accounted for as, there will be an error of double counting. <em>Because </em>when you count for an <em>intermediary good </em>and that good is now <em>finished</em> and part of another good, when you will count that <em>finished good</em>, the value of that intermediary good will be counted also, so this will double the numbers of your <em>GDP </em>and you will make an error.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Catherine, a senior project manager, has advance knowledge of the projects that her team will be handling in the next six months
labwork [276]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": one of the satisfactions of being a leader.

Explanation:

The satisfaction of being a leader implies all those benefits employees with high rank and influence in the companies have. Those satisfactions are not merely monetary but also include having a wider knowledge of what the purposes of the firm are in the short and long term.

4 0
2 years ago
One year ago, Stacey purchased 100 shares of KNF stock for $3,245. Today, she sold those shares for $35.00 per share. What is th
Nataly [62]

Answer:

7.86%

Explanation:

The computation of the capital gain yield on the investment is shown below:

As we know that

Capital gains yield is

= (Selling price per share × number of shares purchased) ÷ (Stock value) - 1

= $3,500 ÷ $3,245 - 1

= 0.07858

= 7.86%

We simply applied the above formula so that the capital gain yield could come and the same is to be considered

3 0
3 years ago
ExxonMobil has historically had a very low debt-to-equity ratio within the oil industry, but it recently issued $12 billion in n
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

The WACC before bond issuance is 3.9% and the WACC after bond issuance is 3.71%

Explanation:

In order to calculate the WACC before bond issuance , we would have to calculate first the cost of equity  using capital asset pricing model .

So Using CAPM we have Rf + Beta x Market risk premium

= 0.5% + 0.85 * 4%

= 3.9% . cost of equity

Therefore WACC before bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)

= 3.9% . WACC before bond issuance will be equal to cost of equity in this case as there is no debt issue.

In order to calculate the WACC after bond issuance  we make the following calculation:

WACC after bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)

= (3.9% x 0.9) + (2% x 0.1)

= 3.51% + 0.2%

= 3.71%

4 0
2 years ago
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All sales are made on credit. Based on past experience, the company estimates that 0.5% of net credit sales are uncollectible. W
professor190 [17]

Answer:

$4,400

Explanation:

The computation of the amount which is debited to a bad debt expense account is shown below:

=  Net Credit sales × estimated percentage given

= $880,000 × 0.5%

= $4,400

The journal entry is shown below;

Bad debt expense A/c Dr  $4,400

  To Allowance for doubtful debts  $4,400

(Being bad debt expense is recorded)

4 0
3 years ago
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