Answer:
16.25;
g(f(x)) ;
76 ;
f(g(x))
Explanation:
For 15 off
f(x) = x - 15
For 35% off
g(x) = (1 - 0.35)x = 0.65x
g(x) = 0.65x
A.)
For the $15 off coupon :
f(x) = x - 15
f(x) 40 - 15 = 25
For the 35% coupon :
g(x) = (1-0.35)x
g(x) = 0.65(25)
g(x) = 16.25
B.)
Applying $15 off first, then 35%
Here, g is a function of f(x)
g(f(x))
Here g(x) takes in the result of f(x) ;
For the $140 off coupon :
f(x) = x - 15
f(140) = 140 - 15 = 125
For the 35% coupon :
g(125) = (1-0.35)x
g(124) = 0.65(125) = $81.25
C.)
x = 140
g(x) = 0.65x
g(140) = 0.65(140)
g(140) = 91
f(x) = x - 15
f(91) = 91 - 15
f(91) = 76
D.)
Here, F is a function of g(x)
f(g(x))
f(x) = (0.65*140) - 15
Answer:
IRR is 18.25%
Annual amount is -$0.225 which closest to zero dollar,because at irr the investment return is zero
Explanation:
The formula for IRR in excel is :irr(values)
The formula can be applied to the cash outflow of $4,000 and cash inflow of $9,250 in five years' time as follows
Years Cash flow
0 -$4,000
1 $0
2 $0
3 $0
4 $0
5 $9,250
irr(-$4000 to $9,250)
irr is 18.25%
The amount of receivable each year can be computed using pmt formula in excel
=pmt(rate,nper,-pv,fv)
rate is the irr of 18.25%
pv is -$4000
fv is the future amount 0f $9,250
=pmt(18.25%,5,-4000,9250)
pmt=-$0.225 which closest to zero amount
Answer:
PV= $30,111.98
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Future value= $60,000
Number of periods= 8
Interest rate= 9%
<u>To calculate the initial investment, we need to use the following formula:</u>
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
<u>Isolating PV:</u>
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 60,000 / 1.09^8
PV= 30,111.98
