Answer:
yes
Step-by-step explanation:
c + 3 > 5
subtract 3 from both sides: c > 2
c - 1 > 1
Add 1 to both sides: c > 2
Therefore, they are equivalent.
Answer:
csc(x)
Step-by-step explanation:
cos(x)cot(x)+sin(x)
We know that cot(x) = cos(x)/ sin (x)
cos(x)cos(x)/ sin(x)+sin(x)
cos^2 (x)/ sin + sin (x)
Getting a common denominator
cos^2 (x)/ sin + sin (x)* sin (x)/ sin(x)
(cos^2(x) + sin^2(x)) /sin(x)
We know that (cos^2(x) + sin^2(x)) = 1
1/sin (x)
1/ sin (x) =csc(x)
csc(x)
Answer:
yeah, it is 35.77
Step-by-step explanation:
:)))))
To answer the question we need to know if we replaced or not.
Lets calculate the 2 probabilities.
1, No replacement
first draw is an ace P=4/52
2nd draw is an ace P=3/51
Both are A: P=4/52 * 3/51 = 0,0045
2, With replacement
Both draws P=4/52
Both A: P =(4/52)^2 = 0,0059
So we know that it was with replacement.
This means theat the two events are independent. (both draws have 4/52 chance, not affecting eachother)
First we subtract the whole numbers:
6-5=1
Now we subtract 2/8 from 3/8:
.
Your answer is:
