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nexus9112 [7]
3 years ago
8

Given a mean earth radius of 20,906,000 ft, and an observation latitude of n 42 degrees, what is the arc distance of one second

of longitude and one second of latitude?
Mathematics
1 answer:
murzikaleks [220]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

  • arc second of longitude: 75.322 ft
  • arc second of latitude: 101.355 ft

Explanation:

The circumference of the earth at the given radius is ...

  2π(20,906,000 ft) ≈ 131,356,272 ft

If that circumference represents 360°, as it does for latitude, then we can find the length of an arc-second by dividing by the number of arc-seconds in 360°. That number is ...

  (360°/circle)×(60 min/°)×(60 sec/min) = 1,296,000 sec/circle

Then one arc-second is

  (131,356,272 ft/circle)/(1,296,000 sec/circle) = 101.355 ft/arc-second

__

Each degree of latitude has the same spacing as every other degree of latitude everywhere. So, this distance is the length of one arc-second of latitude: 101.355 ft.

_____

<em>Comment on these distance measures</em>

We consider the Earth to have a spherical shape for this problem. It is worth noting that the measure of one degree of latitude is almost exactly 1 nautical mile--an easy relationship to remember.

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Prove each of the following statements below using one of the proof techniques and state the proof strategy you use.
pochemuha

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Direct proof: Let m be an odd integer and n be an even integer. Then, there exist integers k,j such that m=2k+1 and n=2j. Then mn=(2k+1)(2j)=2r, where r=j(2k+1) is an integer. Thus, mn is even.

b) Proof by counterpositive: Suppose that m is not even and n is not even. Then m is odd and n is odd, that is, m=2k+1 and n=2j+1 for some integers k,j. Thus, mn=4kj+2k+2j+1=2(kj+k+j)+1=2r+1, where r=kj+k+j is an integer. Hence mn is odd, i.e, mn is not even. We have proven the counterpositive.

c) Proof by contradiction: suppose that rp is NOT irrational, then rp=m/n for some integers m,n, n≠. Since r is a non zero rational number, r=a/b for some non-zero integers a,b. Then p=rp/r=rp(b/a)=(m/n)(b/a)=mb/na. Now n,a are non zero integers, thus na is a non zero integer. Additionally, mb is an integer. Therefore p is rational which is contradicts that p is irrational. Hence np is irrational.

d) Proof by cases: We can verify this directly with all the possible orderings for a,b,c. There are six cases:

a≥b≥c, a≥c≥b, b≥a≥c, b≥c≥a, c≥b≥a, c≥a≥b

Writing the details for each one is a bit long. I will give you an example for one case: suppose that c≥b≥a then max(a, max(b,c))=max(a,c)=c. On the other hand, max(max(a, b),c)=max(b,c)=c, hence the statement is true in this case.

e) Direct proof: write a=m/n and b=p/q, with m,q integers and n,q nonnegative integers. Then ab=mp/nq. mp is an integer, and nq is a non negative integer. Hence ab is rational.

f) Direct proof. By part c), √2/n is irrational for all natural numbers n. Furthermore, a is rational, then a+√2/n is irrational. Take n large enough in such a way that b-a>√2/n (b-a>0 so it is possible). Then a+√2/n is between a and b.

g) Direct proof: write m+n=2k and n+p=2j for some integers k,j. Add these equations to get m+2n+p=2k+2j. Then m+p=2k+2j-2n=2(k+j-n)=2s for some integer s=k+j-n. Thus m+p is even.

7 0
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Step-by-step explanation:

Amanda read 20 and Melissa read 16. 20-16=4.

6 0
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For 3. he answer is a
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Step-by-step explanation:

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6 0
3 years ago
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