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Genrish500 [490]
3 years ago
5

Mega Dynamics is considering a project that has the following cash flows:

Business
1 answer:
NeTakaya3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The NPV of the project is $765.91 and option A is the correct answer.

Explanation:

To calculate the initial outlay or cost of the project, we will use the payback period of the project. The payback period is the time taken by the project's cash flows to cover up the initial cost.

A payback period of 2.5 years means that the initial cost was,

Initial cost = 2000 + 3000 + 3000 * 0.5

Initial cost = $6500

To calculate the NPV of the project, we use the following formula,

NPV = CF1 / (1+r)  +  CF2 / (1+r)^2  +  ...  +  CFn / (1+r)^n  -  Initial cost

Where,

  • CF1, CF2 , ... represents the cash flow in year 1, cash flow in year 2 and so on.
  • r is the cost of capital

NPV = 2000 / (1+0.12)  +  3000 / (1+0.12)^2  +  3000 / (1+0.12)^3  +  

1500 / (1+0.12)^4  -  6500

NPV = $765.9137794 rounded off to $765.91

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Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]
Standardization and innovation play critical roles in the development of goods and services. Standardization allows for a stabilized starting point in which to move forward and develop other goods and services which is related to innovation. Standardization provides stability, a known factor which can be relied upon, whereas innovation is riskier and may not come to be successful endeavor. However, like all risk, that is the payoff for the investment in innovation, for if the innovative good or service can be successfully brought to market, the dividends for a payout can be well worth it.
5 0
3 years ago
National Home Rentals has a beta of 1.06, a stock price of $17, and recently paid an annual dividend of $.92 a share. The divide
ANEK [815]

Answer:

9.6845%

Explanation:

Market risk premium = Market return - Risk free rate

                             7.3 = 11.2 - Risk free rate

Risk free rate = 3.9%

(1) Use CAPM:

Cost of equity = Risk free rate + Beta × Market risk premium

                        = 3.9% + 1.06(7.3)

                        = 11.638%

(2) Use DDM :

Stock price = [Latest dividend × (1 + dividend growth rate)] ÷ (Cost of equity-dividend growth rate)

$17 = [0.92 (1 + 0.022)] ÷ (Cost of equity - 0.022)

Cost of equity = 7.731%

Cost of equity = average value from using DDM and CAPM

Cost of equity = 0.5 (7.731 + 11.638)

                        = 9.6845%

4 0
3 years ago
EB10.
Mrrafil [7]

Answer:

                                                                        Debit                   Credit

Work in process inventory                            $15,000

Manufacturing overhead clearing account                              $15,000                                    

Explanation:

First determine the amount of applied overhead which can be calculated as follows

Applied overhead=Rate per machine hour*number of hours

Applied overhead=$5*3,000=$15,000

The journal entry for the applied overhead shall be made as follow

                                                                        Debit                   Credit

Work in process inventory                            $15,000

Manufacturing overheads clearing account                              $15,000                                    

8 0
3 years ago
At your new job, the human resources department ask you to bring two forms of identification before you can start working. Which
Karolina [17]

Answer:

the answer is b

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Exhibit 4.1 The balance sheet and income statement shown below are for Koski Inc. Note that the firm has no amortization charges
yuradex [85]

Answer:

Koski Inc.

Quick Ratio:

Quick Ratio = (Current Assets - Inventory) divided by Current Liabilities

Quick Ratio = $(23,595 - 12,480) / $(17,160 -5,460)

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Explanation:

The quick ratio is a financial metric that shows the short-term liquidity position of a company.  It measures the company's ability to settle its short-term obligations using its most liquid current assets.  The most liquid assets are cash and near cash current assets.

Inventory is always removed in calculating the most liquid current assets.  Inventory will take some time before it can be converted to cash or near cash, given the cash conversion cycle.

The quick ratio is also called the acid-test ratio.  It is also considered as more conservative than the current ratio which measures the coverage of current liabilities by all current assets, including inventory.

In our workings, we eliminated inventory from current assets.  We also eliminated notes payable which would be rolled over the next year.

4 0
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