The formula is
A=p (1+r/k)^kt
A future value 12200
P present value 6100
R interest rate ?
K compounded quarterly 4
T time 9 years
Set the equation and solve for r (interest rate)
12200=6100 (1+r/4)^(4×9)
Divide both sides by 6100
12200/6100=(1+r/4)^(36)
2=(1+r/4)^(36)
Take the root of 36 for both sides
2^(1/36)=1+r/4
R= (2^(1/36)-1)×4
R=(2^(1÷36)−1)×4
R=0.0778×100
R=7.78%
Hope it helps!
The relationship between the straight-line and double-declining-balance method is that they D. Produce the same total depreciation over an asset's useful life.
<h3>How are the straight-line and double-declining-balance methods related?</h3>
While they do not produce the same depreciation every year, they will eventually depreciate an asset in the same way overtime.
What this means is that both methods will depreciate an asset by the same amount at the end of the asset's life. However, the depreciation amounts will vary by method on an annual basis.
In conclusion, option D is correct.
Find out more on depreciation methods at brainly.com/question/26948130.
Answer:
$1,070
Explanation:
Calculation to determine the amount of applied overhead is:
Using this formula
Applied overhead = Total cost of WIP - Direct materials - Direct labor
Let plug in the formula
Applied overhead= $3,550 - $1,610 - $870
Applied overhead=$1,070
Therefore the amount of applied overhead is:$1,070
Health insurance is the answer
Answer:
b) $12 million
Explanation:
The new Book Value of the firm at the bigining of next year is $12 million.
In the calulation of Net Pfofit, Interst on loan has already been deducted, so deducting it from the total calculation will be wrong.
hence, only dividend paid will be removed from the addition of the Book Value anf the Net profit.
Closing balance = Opening Book Value + Net Profit - Dividend Paid
Note - The Net Profit is already ne of interest on loan.
Closing balance = $10 + $5 - $3
Closing balance is $12
