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astra-53 [7]
3 years ago
9

Show that every perfect square is congruent to 0, 1, or 4 modulo 8

Mathematics
1 answer:
Keith_Richards [23]3 years ago
5 0
You want to prove that

n^2\equiv k\mod8,k\in\{0,1,4\}

for (presumably) all integers n\ge1.

Let's consider some sub-cases.

Suppose n=2\ell-1 is odd. Then

n^2=(2\ell-1)^2=4\ell^2-4\ell+1

If \ell is even, then so is \ell^2-\ell, which means you can write 4\ell^2-4\ell=8m for some integer m, and this reduces to n^2\equiv1\mod8.

If \ell is odd, the same thing happens; you get that \ell^2-\ell is still even, so 4\ell^2-4\ell\equiv0\mod8 and you're left again with n^2\equiv1\mod8.

Now assume n=2\ell is even. Then n^2=4\ell^2. If \ell=2j is even, then you will always be able to write

n^2=(2\ell)^2=4\ell^2=4(2j)^2=8\times2j^2\equiv0\mod8

Meanwhile, if \ell=2j-1 is odd, then

n^2=4\ell^2=4(2j-1)^2=16j^2-16j+4\equiv4\mod8

So you conclude that

n^2\equiv\begin{cases}0\mod8&\text{for }n\in\{4,8,12,16,\ldots\}\\1\mod8&\text{for }n\in\{1,3,5,7,\ldots\}\\4\mod8&\text{for }n\in\{2,6,10,14,\ldots\}\end{cases}
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

To determine which of the options is least likely to occur, first convert all of them to the same form (fractions, decimals, percentages, etc.). Since 2 are already in fraction form, let's convert the other one to fraction form as well.

0.4 = 4/10

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Now, the probabilities are 2/5, 1/6, and 2/3. Since 1/6 is the smallest number out of the three, that option is correct; a probability of 2/3 the least likely to occur.

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3 years ago
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Step-by-step explanation:

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the length of a rectangle is 4 times it's width. the rectangle's width is 8 m. what is the area of the rectangle?
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