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cestrela7 [59]
3 years ago
7

The number of customers who enter a bank is thought to be Poisson distributed with a mean equal to 10 per hour. What are the cha

nces that 2 or 3 customers will arrive in a 15-minute period
Business
2 answers:
Anton [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: 0.4704

Explanation:

Poisson formula for the distribution could be written as:

P(x) = [((nT) ^x) * (e^-nT)] ÷ x!

mean(n) = average number of customers per hour = 10

Length of time(T) = 15 minutes = 15÷60 = 0.25 hour

x = number of customers

e = exponential constant

Therefore chances of 2 or 3 customers arriving in a 0.25 hour period can be defined as ;

P(2) or P(3) = P(2) + P(3)

P(2)=[((10*0.25)^2) *(e^-10*0.25)] ÷ 2!

P(3)=[((10*0.25)^3) *(e^-10*0.25)] ÷ 3!

P(2) = 0.2566

P(3) = 0.2138

P(2)+P(3)= 0.2566 + 0.2138 =0.4704

VLD [36.1K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The probability that 2 or 3 customers will arrive in a 15-minute period is 0.4703

Explanation:

Firstly, we have to determine the segment unit, since the mean is 10 per hour, the segment unit is 1 hour.

The mean(m) = 10

since the period is 15 minutes = 0.25 hour, t= 0.25 hour / 1 hour. Therefore mt= 2*10 = 2.5

The poisson distribution formula P(x) = \frac{(mt)^{x}e^{-mt}  }{x!}

Therefore the probability that 2 or 3 customers will arrive in a 15-minute period

P(x=2) or P(x=3) = P(x=2) + P(x=3) = \frac{(2.5)^{2}e^{-2.5}  }{2!}+\frac{(2.5)^{3}e^{-2.5}  }{3!} = 0.2565 + 0.2138 = 0.4703

Therefore P(x=2) or P(x=3) = 0.4703

The probability that 2 or 3 customers will arrive in a 15-minute period is 0.4703

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Answer:

D. None of the above

Explanation:

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There are various approaches to calculating GDP which include; the income approach, expenditure approach and output approach.

The income approach to calculating GDP considers income from all the factors of production (profits, interest, rental and labor incomes) in each sector of the economy to arrive at the National income of the country.

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3 years ago
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Answer:

a leasehold      

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3 years ago
The seller of product a has no idle capacity and can sell all it can produce at $60 per unit. outlay (variable) cost is $12. wha
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The answer is $48.

The seller of product a has no idle capacity and can sell all it can produce at $60 per unit. outlay (variable) cost is $12. $48 is the opportunity cost, assuming the seller sells internally

It is calculated as follows:

Opportunity cost= Production cost- Outlay cost

                             = 60-12

                               =$48

Opportunity costs represent the potential benefits which any individual or investor, or  any business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.

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5 0
2 years ago
A portfolio manager sells Treasury bonds and buys corporate bonds because the spread between corporate- and Treasury-bond yields
Kobotan [32]

Answer: The correct answer is "an intermarket spread".

Explanation: This is an example of <u>an intermarket spread</u> swap.

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7 0
3 years ago
You are looking to buy a car and you have been offered a loan with an APR of 5.7 %​, compounded monthly. a. What is the true mon
lukranit [14]

Answer:

Monthly Interest rate = 0.475%

EAR = 5.85%

Explanation:

a.

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Monthly Interest rate = 0.475%

b.

APR = 5.7%

m = 12

EAR = [ ( 1 + (APR / m))^m] - 1

EAR = [( 1 + (0.057 / 12))^12] - 1

EAR = [( 1 + 0.00475 )^12] - 1

EAR = [( 1.00475 )^12] - 1

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EAR = 0.0585

EAR = 5.85%

True monthly rate of​ interest is 0.475%

EAR is 5.85%

5 0
3 years ago
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