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Andrew [12]
3 years ago
15

Five percent of all vcrs manufactured by a large electronics company are defective. a quality control inspector randomly inspect

s groups of 10 vcrs from the production line. using the tables for the binomial probability distribution, what is the probability that exactly one of the vcrs is defective in any one group of 10 vcrs?
Mathematics
1 answer:
harkovskaia [24]3 years ago
7 0
Binomial
Binomial distribution can be used because the situation satisfies all the following conditions:1. Number of trials is known and remains constant (n=10)2. Each trial is Bernoulli (i.e. exactly two possible outcomes) (defective/normal)3. Probability is known and remains constant throughout the trials (p=5%)4. All trials are random and independent of the others (assumed from context)The number of successes, x, is then given byP(x)=C(n,x)p^x(1-p)^{n-x}whereC(n,x)=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}
Substituting values, p=0.05, n=10, X=exactly 1
for X=1 (defective out of n)
P(X=1)=C(10,1)0.05^1*(1-0.05)^(10-1)
=10!/(1!9!)*0.05*0.95^9
=10*0.05*0.0630249
=0.315125 (to 6 places of decimal)
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The Super Lotto Plus game consists of a player selecting five different numbers from 1 to 47 and a mega number from 1 to 27 (the
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Answer:

1/41416353 probability of all five numbers and the mega number matching the winning numbers

Step-by-step explanation:

A probability is the number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes.

In this question, the order of the numbers is not important. So we use the combinations formula to solve this question.

Combinations formula:

C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

Probability of the five numbers matching:

Desired outcomes: 1 -> the matching numbers

Total outcomes: 5 from a set of 47. So

T = C_{47,5} = \frac{47!}{5!(47-5)!} = 1533939

Probability:

p_{S} = \frac{1}{1533939}

Probability of the mega number matching:

1 from a set of 27. So

p_M = \frac{1}{27}

Probability of both matching:

Independent events, so we multiply the probabilities:

p = p_S*p_M = \frac{1}{1533939}*\frac{1}{27} = \frac{1}{41416353}

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I honestly have no idea

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Answer:

~~

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok so first 2.4 will have to be changed to 24 which means we multiplied it by ten making it 24/10 since it is tan it is opposite side/ adjacent side so your one of your legs will be 24 and one will be 10. Now we just plug that into the Pythagorean Theorem to find the hypotenuse and we get 26. The area is 24b10/2=120 the area is 120.

Leg a= 24

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Read more on Brainly.com - brainly.com/question/12450752#readmore

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